Practice 100 Questions on Constitutional Law for CLAT PG

Adtiya Aryan

20 May 202625 min read

Q1. The phrase “Sovereign” in the Preamble, after 1950, constitutionally signifies that India:
a. Is free from colonial domination
b. Cannot enter international treaties
c. Possesses unlimited internal and external authority subject to the Constitution
d. Is immune from international law

Q2. The Constituent Assembly derived its authority primarily from:
a. An Act of the British Parliament
b. The Cabinet Mission Plan
c. Popular mandate through universal franchise
d. The Government of India Act, 1935

Q3. The most significant implication of the Constitution being “supreme” is that:
a. Parliament is the highest authority
b. Courts have unlimited power
c. All organs are bound by constitutional limits
d. Executive orders prevail over statutes

Q4. Which of the following best reflects the transformative character of the Indian Constitution?
a. It preserves colonial administrative structures
b. It merely codifies existing customs
c. It seeks to restructure social and political relations
d. It limits State intervention in society

Q5. The Preamble was amended for the first and only time to:
a. Clarify the scope of judicial review
b. Insert ideological commitments explicitly
c. Expand Fundamental Rights
d. Redefine federal relations

Q6. The idea that the Constitution is a “living document” implies that:
a. Its text can be altered by courts
b. Its meaning evolves with social change
c. It has no fixed structure
d. It overrides legislative intent

Q7. The Indian model of federalism is often described as “asymmetric” because:
a. All States enjoy identical powers
b. The Centre is constitutionally weak
c. Different units enjoy different constitutional arrangements
d. States lack legislative autonomy

Q8. Which historical circumstance most influenced the inclusion of strong emergency powers?
a. American constitutional practice
b. The French Revolution
c. Partition and internal instability
d. Socialist ideology

Q9. The constitutional commitment to “Fraternity” primarily aims at:
a. Political unity alone
b. Social cohesion across divisions
c. Economic redistribution
d. Religious uniformity

Q10. In constitutional theory, the Preamble is best understood as:
a. A moral proclamation
b. A political manifesto
c. A key to constitutional interpretation
d. A source of legislative power

Q11. Which feature most directly distinguishes India from a “procedural democracy”?
a. Regular elections
b. Parliamentary government
c. Substantive guarantees of justice and dignity
d. Bicameral legislature

Q12. The Constituent Assembly debates reveal that the Constitution was intended to be:
a. Minimalist in scope
b. A rigid code of governance
c. An instrument of social transformation
d. Merely a framework for governance

Q13. The Preamble’s reference to “Justice” is constitutionally unique because it:
a. Refers only to courts
b. Is confined to criminal law
c. Encompasses social, economic, and political dimensions
d. Excludes distributive concerns

Q14. The Indian Constitution’s length and detail are best explained by:
a. Colonial legislative habits
b. Distrust of Parliament
c. Desire to prevent administrative arbitrariness
d. Judicial insistence

Q15. The idea of constitutional morality primarily requires:
a. Obedience to judicial orders
b. Ethical governance beyond formal legality
c. Parliamentary supremacy
d. Strict separation of powers

Q16. Which aspect of the Preamble most clearly reflects India’s break from colonial governance?
a. “Union of States”
b. “Democratic Republic”
c. “Secular”
d. “Justice”

Q17. The Constitution’s emphasis on written guarantees reflects an anxiety about:
a. Political instability
b. Executive discretion
c. Judicial overreach
d. Electoral politics

Q18. The foundational role of the Preamble in constitutional adjudication was firmly recognised in:
a. Golaknath v. State of Punjab
b. Berubari Union Case
c. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
d. Minerva Mills v. Union of India

Q19. The constitutional status of Directive Principles is best described as:
a. Legally enforceable obligations
b. Mere moral exhortations
c. Fundamental in governance but non-justiciable
d. Subordinate to all executive policies

Q20. Which case first judicially recognised that Fundamental Rights and DPSPs are complementary, not antagonistic?
a. Golaknath v. State of Punjab
b. Minerva Mills v. Union of India
c. State of Madras v. Champakam Dorairajan
d. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala

Q21. Article 39A reflects the constitutional commitment to:
a. Economic planning
b. Equal pay for equal work
c. Access to justice
d. Uniform civil code

Q22. Fundamental Duties were inserted primarily to:
a. Create enforceable civic obligations
b. Balance rights with responsibilities
c. Reduce judicial workload
d. Replace Directive Principles

Q23. The Court in AIIMS Students’ Union v. AIIMS emphasised that Fundamental Duties:
a. Are legally enforceable
b. Have no constitutional value
c. Guide interpretation of Fundamental Rights
d. Override DPSPs

Q24. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment is distinctive because it:
a. Introduced judicial review
b. Expanded Fundamental Rights
c. Altered the Preamble and federal balance
d. Abolished Emergency provisions

Q25. The 44th Amendment is constitutionally significant because it:
a. Removed all Emergency powers
b. Restored primacy of Parliament
c. Made Article 21 non-suspendable
d. Abolished President’s discretion

Q26. The 73rd and 74th Amendments are best understood as:
a. Administrative reforms
b. Judicial innovations
c. Constitutional entrenchment of local self-government
d. Merely statutory decentralisation

Q27. The 101st Amendment altered the constitutional scheme by:
a. Introducing cooperative federalism
b. Abolishing State taxation powers
c. Creating a unitary tax system
d. Replacing income tax

Q28. The Supreme Court upheld the 103rd Amendment primarily on the ground that:
a. Reservation can exceed 50%
b. Economic criteria is constitutionally impermissible
c. Economic disadvantage can be an independent basis
d. Equality does not apply to reservations

Q29. Article 32 is described as the “heart and soul” of the Constitution because it:
a. Creates Fundamental Rights
b. Enables direct enforcement of rights
c. Restricts Parliament
d. Empowers High Courts

Q30. A writ of Habeas Corpus lies primarily to:
a. Enforce contractual obligations
b. Challenge administrative policy
c. Secure release from unlawful detention
d. Review legislative competence

Q31. The distinction between Articles 32 and 226 lies in the fact that:
a. Article 226 is narrower in scope
b. Article 32 is discretionary
c. Article 226 can be invoked for non-fundamental rights
d. Article 32 applies only during Emergency

Q32. The doctrine of alternative remedy limits writ jurisdiction by:
a. Completely barring judicial review
b. Requiring exhaustion of statutory remedies first
c. Preventing High Courts from acting
d. Eliminating appellate review

Q33. The ordinance-making power is constitutionally justified as:
a. A parallel legislative authority
b. An emergency executive function
c. A permanent law-making power
d. A substitute for Parliament

Q34. An ordinance will cease to operate if:
a. It is challenged in court
b. It is disapproved by the Cabinet
c. It is not laid before Parliament
d. It is not approved within six weeks of reassembly

Q35. In D.C. Wadhwa v. State of Bihar, the Supreme Court condemned:
a. Judicial interference in ordinances
b. Re-promulgation of ordinances as a fraud on the Constitution
c. Legislative supremacy
d. Emergency powers

Q36. The constitutional guarantee that personal liberty survives even during a Proclamation of Emergency was introduced to negate which judicial position?
a. That Parliament cannot amend Fundamental Rights
b. That life and liberty can be suspended during Emergency
c. That Emergency proclamations are immune from review
d. That Article 21 is subordinate to Article 352

Q37. The case that decisively reconceptualised “life” under Article 21 as encompassing human dignity rather than bare existence concerned:
a. Prison conditions and humane treatment
b. Pavement dwellers’ right to shelter
c. Emergency medical care
d. Speedy trial for undertrials

Q38. The transformation of Article 14 into a guarantee against arbitrary State action is doctrinally traced to:
a. Maneka Gandhi
b. E.P. Royappa
c. Kesavananda Bharati
d. Minerva Mills

Q39. Which constitutional consequence followed from the Forty-Fourth Amendment’s approach to property?
a. Property ceased to be constitutionally protected
b. Property became a legal right under Article 300A
c. Property was shifted to the Ninth Schedule
d. Property was merged into Article 19(1)(g)

Q40. The majority in Janhit Abhiyan upheld the EWS amendment primarily by recognising that:
a. Reservation may exceed fifty percent
b. Economic disadvantage can stand alone as a basis
c. Backwardness must always be caste-based
d. Equality is inapplicable to affirmative action

Q41. Freedom of religion under Article 25 is constitutionally structured as a liberty that yields to:
a. Morality alone
b. Health alone
c. Public order alone
d. Public order, morality, and health

Q42. The protection enjoyed by journalists against compelled disclosure of sources flows from:
a. An express constitutional text
b. Judicial interpretation of free speech
c. Statutory privilege
d. Parliamentary practice

Q43. Preventive detention legislation is constitutionally tested mainly against:
a. Articles 14 and 19
b. Articles 21 and 22
c. Articles 32 and 226
d. Articles 19 and 25

Q44. After Puttaswamy, the right to privacy in India is best described as:
a. An implied facet of free speech
b. An aspect of personal liberty and dignity
c. A statutory entitlement
d. A moral claim

Q45. Which constitutional guarantee operates horizontally against private persons as well as the State?
a. Freedom of association
b. Protection against double jeopardy
c. Right to reputation
d. Prohibition of trafficking

Q46. A body is excluded from Article 12 primarily when it:
a. Performs public functions
b. Is created by statute
c. Lacks deep and pervasive State control
d. Exercises regulatory authority

Q47. If Parliament enacts a speech-restricting law that fails the test of reasonableness, the constitutional consequence is that it becomes:
a. Inoperative only during Emergency
b. Void to the extent of inconsistency
c. Valid pending amendment
d. Automatically saved

Q48. Where a statutory authority decides a matter in violation of a mandatory hearing requirement, the appropriate constitutional remedy is:
a. Prohibition
b. Mandamus
c. Certiorari
d. Habeas Corpus

Q49. The principal constitutional import of the Ninth Amendment (1960) lay in enabling:
a. Decentralised governance
b. Exchange of territories pursuant to international agreement
c. Linguistic reorganisation
d. Entrenchment of land reforms

Q50. The requirement that States justify promotion-based reservation through empirical data was crystallised in:
a. Indra Sawhney
b. M. Nagaraj
c. Jarnail Singh
d. Ashoka Kumar Thakur

Q51. Which of the following best describes the President’s constitutional status under Article 79?
a. The President has veto power but is not a member of Parliament
b. Despite not being a member of either House, the President is an integral part of Parliament
c. Joint sittings are presided over by the President
d. The President participates in debates

Q52. Which of the following statements are true?
a. A Bill becomes law without the President’s assent
b. The President may address either House of Parliament
c. The President has the power to summon and prorogue the Houses
d. All of the above

Q53. For which of the following reasons may a national emergency be declared?
a. War, external aggression, or armed rebellion
b. Armed rebellion only
c. External aggression only
d. Internal disturbance only

Q54. Which of the following amendments replaced “internal disturbance” with “armed rebellion”?
a. 42nd
b. 38th
c. 44th
d. 52nd

Q55. Which of the following articles provides for parliamentary privileges?
a. Art. 123
b. Art. 105
c. Art. 110
d. Art. 368

Q56. _________ provides that the Legislature of every State consists of the Governor and one or two Houses.
a. Art. 162
b. Art. 168
c. Art. 167
d. Art. 166

Q57. Which of the following articles provides for the constitution of Parliament?
a. Art. 78
b. Art. 79
c. Art. 80
d. Art. 81

Q58. The doctrine of territorial nexus was first laid down in the case of:
a. Wallace v. Income Tax Commissioner
b. State of West Bengal v. Union of India
c. A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
d. State of Bombay v. R.M.D. Chamarbaugwala

Q59. In which of the following cases was the abrogation of Article 370 challenged on the ground of colourable legislation?
a. Manohar Lal Sharma v. Union of India
b. Anoop Baranwal v. Union of India
c. S.R. Bommai v. Union of India
d. Prem Nath Kaul v. State of Jammu and Kashmir

Q60. Which of the following statements are incorrect?
a. Article 254 relates to inconsistency between Union and State laws
b. Repugnancy arises only for Concurrent List subjects
c. Repugnancy may arise even if Parliament has not legislated
d. In case of conflict, Union law prevails automatically

Q61. Which of the following statements is true regarding a national emergency?
a. Article 19 gets automatically suspended
b. Articles 20 and 21 may be suspended
c. Parliament can legislate on the State List
d. The federal structure completely ends

Q62. Assertion: State law is null and void due to repugnancy.
Reason: State law is void to the extent of inconsistency under Article 254(1).
a. Both A and R are true, and R correctly explains A
b. Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A
c. A is true, but R is false
d. A is false, but R is true

Q63. By which amendment did the right to property cease to be a fundamental right?
a. 42nd
b. 43rd
c. 44th
d. 52nd

Q64. In Shamsher Singh v. State of Punjab, the Court held that the President acts:
a. Independently
b. On personal discretion
c. On the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers
d. On the advice of the judiciary

Q65. Which of the following is dealt with under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution?
a. North-east states
b. Scheduled Areas
c. Panchayats
d. Municipalities

Q66. Ordinance-making power of the President is provided under:
a. Art. 122
b. Art. 123
c. Art. 124
d. Art. 125

Q67. Assertion: Parliamentary privileges are not codified.
Reason: Article 105 leaves them to be defined by Parliament by law.
a. Both A and R are true, and R correctly explains A
b. Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A
c. A is true, but R is false
d. A is false, but R is true

Q68. Consider the following statements:

The President is not a member of either House
The President participates in the legislative process
The President may refuse assent to Constitutional Amendment Bills

Which are correct?

a. 1 & 2 only
b. 2 & 3 only
c. 1, 2 & 3
d. 1 only

Q69. The residuary legislative power is conferred on Parliament under:
a. Art. 246
b. Art. 248
c. Art. 249
d. Art. 250

Q70. Which provision allows Parliament to legislate on the State List during a National Emergency?
a. Art. 249
b. Art. 250
c. Art. 252
d. Art. 254

Q71. Article 245 permits Parliament to legislate:
a. Only for citizens
b. Only within India
c. For the whole or any part of India, including extra-territorial operation
d. Only for Union Territories

Q72. Repugnancy applies only when:

Both laws are validly enacted
Both relate to the Concurrent List
There is a real and irreconcilable conflict
Subjects are merely similar

a. 1, 2, 3 only
b. 1 and 4 only
c. 2, 3, 4 only
d. All of the above

Q73. In ADM Jabalpur v. Shivkant Shukla, the Court held that during an emergency:
a. Article 21 is enforceable
b. Habeas corpus is maintainable
c. Fundamental Rights are unenforceable
d. Emergency is invalid

Q74. Judicial review of Article 356 proclamations was firmly established in:
a. S.R. Bommai v. Union of India
b. P.C. Wadhwa v. Union of India
c. Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain
d. Berubari Case

Q75. A Supreme Court judge remains in office until the age of:
a. 60 years
b. 65 years
c. 62 years
d. 68 years

Q76. The Comptroller and Auditor-General is appointed under:
a. Article 78
b. Article 148
c. Article 158
d. Article 178

Q77. A law with extraterritorial application passed by Parliament:
a. Is invalid
b. Is ultra vires
c. Is unconstitutional
d. Is not invalid or ultra vires

Q78. Which statement is correct regarding the ordinance power of the Governor?
a. It is co-extensive with State legislative power
b. Can be issued when Assembly is in session
c. Can never be challenged
d. Has permanent effect

Q79. Assertion: Ordinances are subject to judicial review.
Reason: Ordinance-making power is legislative in nature.
a. Both A and R are true, and R correctly explains A
b. Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A
c. A is true, but R is false
d. A is false, but R is true

Q80. Suspension of Fundamental Rights during emergency is provided under:
a. Art. 358
b. Art. 360
c. Art. 368
d. Art. 365

Q81. Anti-defection is dealt with under which Schedule?
a. Seventh
b. Eighth
c. Eleventh
d. Tenth

Q82. A proclamation of emergency must be approved within:
a. 1 month
b. 2 months
c. 6 months
d. 3 months

Q83. Minimum number of judges on a constitutional bench is:
a. 3
b. 4
c. 7
d. 5

Q84. Formation of the Finance Commission is provided under:
a. Art. 280
b. Art. 275
c. Art. 356
d. Art. 368

Q85. Under Article 358, which Fundamental Rights are suspended?
a. All Fundamental Rights
b. Article 14
c. Article 19
d. Articles 19 and 21

Q86. Which emergency has not been declared yet?
a. National
b. State
c. Constitutional
d. Financial

Q87. Doctrine of pleasure is laid down under:
a. Art. 309
b. Art. 310
c. Art. 311
d. Art. 315

Q88. Maximum gap between two sessions of Parliament:
a. 3 months
b. 4 months
c. 6 months
d. 1 year

Q89. Until legislation under Article 309 is made, rules may be made by:
a. Supreme Court
b. President/Governor
c. UPSC
d. Cabinet Secretary

Q90. All India Services are created under:
a. Art. 309
b. Art. 310
c. Art. 311
d. Art. 312

Q91. Article 311 provides protection to:
a. Private employees
b. Military officers
c. Civil servants
d. Judges

Q92. UPSC is established under:
a. Art. 312
b. Art. 313
c. Art. 315
d. Art. 320

Q93. Chairman of UPSC is appointed by:
a. Prime Minister
b. Parliament
c. President
d. Chief Justice of India

Q94. Doctrine of Pleasure in India is subject to:
a. No limitations
b. Parliamentary supremacy
c. Constitutional limitations (Art. 311)
d. Judicial veto

Q95. Central Administrative Tribunal is established under:
a. Art. 323A
b. Art. 320
c. Art. 312
d. Art. 311

Q96. Anti-defection provisions are contained in:
a. Ninth Schedule
b. Tenth Schedule
c. Twelfth Schedule
d. Part XIV

Q97. Tenth Schedule was inserted by:
a. 42nd Amendment
b. 44th Amendment
c. 52nd Amendment
d. 61st Amendment

Q98. Scheduled Areas are provided under:
a. Part IX
b. Fifth Schedule
c. Sixth Schedule
d. Seventh Schedule

Q99. Fifth Schedule applies to:
a. Entire India
b. North-East only
c. Scheduled Areas other than North-East
d. Union Territories only

Q100. Scheduled Areas are declared by:
a. Governor
b. Parliament
c. President
d. Supreme Court

Answers:

Correct Answer: C – Possesses unlimited internal and external authority subject to the Constitution

Explanation – The term “Sovereign” signifies that India is independent of any external control and that internally, all authority flows from the Constitution. Unlike the British system of parliamentary sovereignty, India adopts constitutional sovereignty—meaning even Parliament is subordinate to the Constitution. Sovereignty here is therefore not absolute; it is structured and limited by constitutional norms, rights, and values.

Correct Answer: B – The Cabinet Mission Plan

Explanation – The Constituent Assembly was constituted under the Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946, which provided the framework for Indian self-governance. Initially a body created under colonial authority, it later assumed sovereign character after Independence. Its legitimacy thus evolved—from imperial arrangement to an embodiment of the will of the people.

Correct Answer: C – All organs are bound by constitutional limits

Explanation – Constitutional supremacy ensures that no organ—legislature, executive, or judiciary—operates beyond constitutional boundaries. Unlike parliamentary supremacy in the UK, Indian constitutionalism subordinates all power to the Constitution. This allows courts to invalidate laws and executive actions that violate constitutional provisions.

Correct Answer: C – It seeks to restructure social and political relations

Explanation – The Constitution is not merely procedural; it is transformative. Through Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles, and affirmative action, it aims to dismantle entrenched hierarchies of caste, class, and gender. It does not simply preserve the status quo—it seeks to reimagine society on egalitarian lines.

Correct Answer: B – Insert ideological commitments explicitly

Explanation – The 42nd Amendment inserted “Socialist” and “Secular” into the Preamble. These values were implicit earlier, but the amendment made them explicit, reflecting a constitutional commitment to social justice and religious neutrality. It shows that the Preamble can evolve while retaining its core identity.

Correct Answer: B – Its meaning evolves with social change

Explanation – A “living Constitution” does not change in text but in meaning through interpretation. Courts adapt constitutional principles to contemporary realities—such as expanding Article 21 to include privacy, dignity, and environment—ensuring relevance without formal amendment.

Correct Answer: C – Different units enjoy different constitutional arrangements

Explanation – Indian federalism is asymmetric because some regions have special constitutional treatment (e.g., Nagaland, earlier J&K, Sixth Schedule areas). This reflects India’s diversity and the need for flexible federal design, distinguishing it from uniform federal models like the USA.

Correct Answer: C – Partition and internal instability

Explanation – The trauma of Partition, communal violence, and fears of secession shaped the framers’ insistence on strong emergency powers. These provisions were designed to preserve unity and constitutional order during extraordinary threats.

Correct Answer: B – Social cohesion across divisions

Explanation – Fraternity is not mere national unity; it is a constitutional aspiration to foster social solidarity across caste, religion, and class. It underpins equality and dignity by recognising that democracy cannot survive in a fragmented society.

Correct Answer: C – A key to constitutional interpretation

Explanation – The Preamble is not a source of power, but it acts as an interpretative compass. Courts use it to understand the spirit and objectives of the Constitution, especially in cases involving ambiguity or fundamental values.

Correct Answer: C – Substantive guarantees of justice and dignity

Explanation – India goes beyond procedural democracy. It embeds commitments to social and economic justice, dignity, and equality, transforming democracy into a substantive project rather than a mere electoral mechanism.

Correct Answer: C – An instrument of social transformation

Explanation – Constituent Assembly debates reveal that the framers viewed the Constitution as a tool for rebuilding society after colonialism. They consciously rejected minimalism in favour of a document capable of guiding deep social change.

Correct Answer: C – Encompasses social, economic, and political dimensions

Explanation – Justice in the Preamble is holistic. It extends beyond courts to social conditions (ending exploitation), economic arrangements (reducing inequality), and political participation (democratic inclusion).

Correct Answer: C – Desire to prevent administrative arbitrariness

Explanation – The Constitution’s detail reflects anxiety about unchecked executive power inherited from colonial rule. Codifying procedures, rights, and limitations was intended to prevent arbitrary governance.

Correct Answer: B – Ethical governance beyond formal legality

Explanation – Constitutional morality requires institutions to act in the spirit of constitutional values—liberty, equality, dignity—even when formal rules allow discretion. It restrains power through ethical commitment, not just legal compliance.

Correct Answer: B – “Democratic Republic”

Explanation – This phrase represents a complete rupture from monarchy and colonial subordination. It affirms that authority flows from the people and that governance is based on popular will.

Correct Answer: B – Executive discretion

Explanation – Written guarantees reveal distrust of unchecked power, especially executive authority. They ensure that individual liberty is protected through enforceable legal norms.

Correct Answer: C – Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala

Explanation – This case recognised the Preamble as part of the Constitution and treated it as embodying its basic structure. It transformed the Preamble from a symbolic introduction into a doctrinal anchor of constitutional identity.

Correct Answer: C – Fundamental in governance but non-justiciable

Explanation – The Directive Principles are placed in Part IV to guide the State in law-making and policy. Article 37 makes their position clear: they are “fundamental in the governance of the country” but “shall not be enforceable by any court.” This reflects the Constitution’s vision of a welfare State—DPSPs supply moral and political direction, while courts ensure that they are pursued through democratic means rather than judicial compulsion.

Correct Answer: B – Minerva Mills v. Union of India

Explanation – In Minerva Mills, the Court rejected the idea that Fundamental Rights and DPSPs are in conflict. It held that Parts III and IV are “like two wheels of a chariot”—neither can be given absolute primacy. This decision constitutionalised harmony between liberty and social justice as part of the basic structure.

Correct Answer: C – Access to justice

Explanation – Article 39A is not about economic policy alone; it constitutionalises equal justice. It mandates free legal aid and removal of barriers to courts. This provision inspired the Legal Services Authorities Act and Lok Adalats, transforming access to justice from a privilege into a constitutional commitment.

Correct Answer: B – Balance rights with responsibilities

Explanation – The Fundamental Duties were inserted to correct the perception that the Constitution spoke only of entitlements. They embed civic ethics into constitutional culture, reminding citizens that democracy depends not merely on claiming rights, but on discharging social responsibilities.

Correct Answer: C – Guide interpretation of Fundamental Rights

Explanation – In AIIMS Students’ Union, the Court clarified that Fundamental Duties, though non-enforceable, can shape the content of rights. For example, freedom of speech may be balanced with the duty to preserve harmony or protect public property.

Correct Answer: C – Altered the Preamble and federal balance

Explanation – The 42nd Amendment changed the ideological identity of the Constitution by inserting “Socialist” and “Secular” into the Preamble. It also centralised power by curtailing judicial review and expanding Parliament’s authority—hence its reputation as a “mini-Constitution.”

Correct Answer: C – Made Article 21 non-suspendable

Explanation – The 44th Amendment was a constitutional repentance for ADM Jabalpur. By making Articles 20 and 21 immune even during Emergency, it restored the inviolability of life and liberty, placing them beyond executive suspension.

Correct Answer: C – Constitutional entrenchment of local self-government

Explanation – The 73rd and 74th Amendments did not merely decentralise administration; they constitutionalised grassroots democracy. Panchayats and Municipalities became institutions of self-government, not creations of ordinary statute.

Correct Answer: A – Introducing cooperative federalism

Explanation – GST did not abolish federalism; it reshaped it. The GST Council institutionalises Centre–State cooperation in taxation, replacing competitive federalism with a coordinated fiscal structure.

Correct Answer: C – Economic disadvantage can be an independent basis

Explanation – In Janhit Abhiyan, the Court held that poverty is a constitutionally relevant axis of disadvantage. This marked a doctrinal shift by recognising that backwardness need not always be social or caste-based.

Correct Answer: B – Enables direct enforcement of rights

Explanation – Article 32 is itself a Fundamental Right. It empowers citizens to approach the Supreme Court directly for enforcement. Dr. Ambedkar described it as the “heart and soul” because rights without remedies are illusory.

Correct Answer: C – Secure release from unlawful detention

Explanation – Habeas Corpus protects personal liberty at its most basic level. It commands the authority to justify detention, making liberty the rule and detention the exception.

Correct Answer: C – Article 226 extends to non-FR matters

Explanation – Article 226 empowers High Courts to issue writs not only for Fundamental Rights but “for any other purpose,” making their jurisdiction broader and more flexible than Article 32.

Correct Answer: B – Exhaustion of statutory remedies

Explanation – This doctrine reflects judicial restraint. Courts insist that where the legislature provides a complete remedial framework, it must ordinarily be used first. Yet, it is not absolute—writs still lie for violation of natural justice or lack of jurisdiction.

Correct Answer: B – Emergency executive function

Explanation – Ordinance power exists to meet urgent situations when Parliament is not in session. It is not an alternative legislature, but a temporary bridge between necessity and parliamentary authority.

Correct Answer: D – Not approved within six weeks

Explanation – An ordinance must be laid before Parliament and approved within six weeks of reassembly. Otherwise, it lapses automatically, preserving legislative supremacy.

Correct Answer: B – Re-promulgation as fraud on the Constitution

Explanation – In D.C. Wadhwa, the Court held that repeated re-promulgation subverts parliamentary democracy. Ordinances are meant for emergencies, not as tools of permanent governance.

Correct Answer: B – That life and liberty can be suspended during Emergency

Explanation: In ADM Jabalpur v. Shivkant Shukla (1976), the Supreme Court held that during a Proclamation of Emergency, even the right to life under Article 21 could be suspended. This meant that an individual could not approach courts even for illegal detention. The Forty-Fourth Constitutional Amendment (1978) decisively reversed this position by making Articles 20 and 21 non-suspendable even during an Emergency. The amendment constitutionalised the lesson of ADM Jabalpur—that certain core rights must remain inviolable even in times of crisis.

Correct Answer: A – Prison conditions and humane treatment

Explanation: Francis Coralie Mullin v. Administrator, Union Territory of Delhi (1981) expanded Article 21 beyond mere animal existence. The Court held that the “right to life” includes the right to live with human dignity, encompassing nutrition, clothing, shelter, and humane treatment. The case arose in the context of prison conditions and restrictions on a detenue’s meeting rights. It laid the foundation for a substantive, socio-economic interpretation of Article 21.

Correct Answer: B – E.P. Royappa

Explanation: In E.P. Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu (1974), the Supreme Court revolutionised equality jurisprudence by declaring that “equality is antithetic to arbitrariness.” This shifted Article 14 from a formal classification-based test to a substantive guarantee against arbitrary State action. Later cases like Maneka Gandhi built upon this, but Royappa introduced the core doctrine.

Correct Answer: B – Property became a legal right under Article 300A

Explanation: The Forty-Fourth Amendment removed the Right to Property from Part III by repealing Article 31. However, it did not eliminate constitutional protection altogether. Instead, it inserted Article 300A, recognising property as a constitutional (but not fundamental) right. This balanced individual protection with the State’s power to implement socio-economic reforms.

Correct Answer: B – Economic disadvantage can stand alone as a basis

Explanation: In Janhit Abhiyan v. Union of India, the Supreme Court upheld the 103rd Constitutional Amendment introducing EWS reservation. The majority held that economic criteria can independently justify affirmative action. This marked a doctrinal shift from the traditional caste-centric understanding of backwardness and confirmed that equality under Article 14 permits economic disadvantage as a standalone basis.

Correct Answer: D – Public order, morality, and health

Explanation: Article 25 guarantees freedom of conscience and religion but expressly subjects it to public order, morality, and health. This ensures that religious freedom does not override societal interests. Courts have repeatedly upheld regulations on religious practices when they conflict with these constitutional limitations.

Correct Answer: B – Judicial interpretation of free speech

Explanation: The Constitution does not explicitly protect journalists’ sources. However, courts have read this protection into Article 19(1)(a) as an essential aspect of press freedom. The rationale is that compelled disclosure chills investigative journalism and undermines democratic accountability.

Correct Answer: B – Articles 21 and 22

Explanation: Preventive detention directly affects personal liberty under Article 21. Article 22 provides specific procedural safeguards, such as communication of grounds and representation before an Advisory Board. Together, they form the constitutional framework governing preventive detention.

Correct Answer: B – An aspect of personal liberty and dignity

Explanation: In K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017), a nine-judge bench held that privacy is intrinsic to life and personal liberty under Article 21. It is grounded in dignity, autonomy, and decisional freedom, not merely in informational control.

Correct Answer: D – Prohibition of trafficking

Explanation: Article 23 operates horizontally. It binds not only the State but also private individuals, prohibiting trafficking and forced labour. Most Fundamental Rights apply vertically against the State; Article 23 is a notable exception.

Correct Answer: C – Lacks deep and pervasive State control

Explanation: Article 12 includes “other authorities” under State control. Courts apply tests such as financial, functional, and administrative dominance. A body lacking deep and pervasive control, even if performing public functions, generally remains outside Article 12.

Correct Answer: B – Void to the extent of inconsistency

Explanation: Article 13(2) declares that any law contravening Fundamental Rights is void “to the extent of the contravention.” An unreasonable restriction on speech violates Article 19(2) and becomes unconstitutional in that measure.

Correct Answer: C – Certiorari

Explanation: Certiorari lies to quash decisions of authorities acting without jurisdiction or in violation of natural justice. Where a mandatory hearing is denied, the order is vitiated and must be annulled—precisely the function of certiorari.

Correct Answer: B – Exchange of territories pursuant to international agreement

Explanation: The Ninth Constitutional Amendment, 1960, enabled implementation of the Indo-Pakistan Agreement on the Berubari Union and exchange of enclaves. It followed the Supreme Court’s advisory opinion that such territorial cession required a constitutional amendment.

Correct Answer: B – M. Nagaraj

Explanation: M. Nagaraj v. Union of India (2006) held that reservation in promotion for SC/STs is permissible only when the State produces quantifiable data proving backwardness, inadequate representation, and preservation of administrative efficiency. It transformed promotional reservation into a conditional, evidence-based policy choice.

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Correct Answer (B) Article 111 – Presidential assent is mandatory for a bill to become an act

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Correct Answer (B) Article 124(2)

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Correct Answer (D) Article 245(2)

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Correct Answer (D) Article 145(3). It states that a minimum of five judges shall sit for a substantial question of constitutional interpretation or for determining constitutional validity of laws

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Correct Answer (C) During a National Emergency on grounds of War or External aggression, only Article 19 is automatically suspended

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Correct Answer (C) Article 85(1)

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Correct Answer (C) Under Article 244(1) of the Indian Constitution, the President has the authority to declare an area as a Scheduled Area, or alter, increase, or decrease its boundaries, usually following consultation with the Governor of the respective state

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Adtiya Aryan

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