MCQs on Evidence Law for CLAT 2026
Attempt these Evidence Law Questions for CLAT PG today!
1. What does Section 3 of the Indian Evidence Act define?
A) Relevancy of facts
B) Meaning of “fact,” “evidence,” and “proved”
C) Judicial notice
D) Expert evidence
Correct Answer: B) Meaning of “fact,” “evidence,” and “proved”
B) Meaning of “fact,” “evidence,” and “proved”
C) Judicial notice
D) Expert evidence
Correct Answer: B) Meaning of “fact,” “evidence,” and “proved”
Explanation: Section 3 provides definitions for key terms such as “evidence,” “proved,” “disproved,” and “not proved,” forming the foundation of the Act.
2. Under which section are facts forming part of the same transaction declared relevant?
A) Section 5
B) Section 6
C) Section 8
D) Section 9
Correct Answer: B) Section 6
B) Section 6
C) Section 8
D) Section 9
Correct Answer: B) Section 6
Explanation: Section 6 explains the doctrine of res gestae, where facts forming part of the same transaction are relevant if they occur contemporaneously.
3. Which of the following is NOT covered under Section 7 of the Indian Evidence Act?
A) Occasion for the fact in issue
B) Cause of the fact in issue
C) Conduct of the parties
D) Effect of the fact in issue
Correct Answer: C) Conduct of the parties
B) Cause of the fact in issue
C) Conduct of the parties
D) Effect of the fact in issue
Correct Answer: C) Conduct of the parties
Explanation: Section 7 deals with facts that form the occasion, cause, or effect of the facts in issue, but not conduct, which is covered under Section 8.
4. Which section of the Indian Evidence Act discusses motive, preparation, and conduct?
A) Section 6
B) Section 8
C) Section 9
D) Section 10
Correct Answer: B) Section 8
B) Section 8
C) Section 9
D) Section 10
Correct Answer: B) Section 8
Explanation: Section 8 states that motive, preparation, and previous or subsequent conduct of a party are relevant facts when connected to the facts in issue.
5. Which section allows the admission of facts necessary to explain or introduce relevant facts?
A) Section 9
B) Section 6
C) Section 7
D) Section 12
Correct Answer: A) Section 9
B) Section 6
C) Section 7
D) Section 12
Correct Answer: A) Section 9
Explanation: Section 9 permits evidence of facts necessary to explain or introduce relevant facts or facts in issue, such as the identity of parties or places.
6. What does Section 11 deal with?
A) Facts inconsistent with facts in issue
B) Admissions
C) Judgments of courts
D) Confessions
Correct Answer: A) Facts inconsistent with facts in issue
B) Admissions
C) Judgments of courts
D) Confessions
Correct Answer: A) Facts inconsistent with facts in issue
Explanation: Section 11 allows the inclusion of facts that make the existence of a fact in issue highly probable or improbable.
7. Under which section can a confession be considered irrelevant if obtained under inducement, threat, or promise?
A) Section 17
B) Section 24
C) Section 25
D) Section 27
Correct Answer: B) Section 24
B) Section 24
C) Section 25
D) Section 27
Correct Answer: B) Section 24
Explanation: Section 24 declares that confessions made due to inducement, threat, or promise are inadmissible if they influence the person making the confession.
8. A confession made to a police officer is inadmissible under which section?
A) Section 24
B) Section 25
C) Section 26
D) Section 27
Correct Answer: B) Section 25
B) Section 25
C) Section 26
D) Section 27
Correct Answer: B) Section 25
Explanation: Section 25 prohibits the admissibility of confessions made to a police officer to prevent coercion and ensure fair trials.
9. Which section deals with dying declarations?
A) Section 30
B) Section 32(1)
C) Section 34
D) Section 35
Correct Answer: B) Section 32(1)
B) Section 32(1)
C) Section 34
D) Section 35
Correct Answer: B) Section 32(1)
Explanation: Section 32(1) allows dying declarations as relevant evidence when a person’s statement relates to the cause of their death or circumstances of the transaction leading to their death.
10. Under which section is oral evidence required to be direct?
A) Section 59
B) Section 60
C) Section 61
D) Section 62
Correct Answer: B) Section 60
B) Section 60
C) Section 61
D) Section 62
Correct Answer: B) Section 60
Explanation: Section 60 mandates that oral evidence must be direct, meaning it must relate to what the witness personally perceived.
11. Which section describes the relevancy of entries in books of account?
A) Section 32
B) Section 34
C) Section 35
D) Section 36
Correct Answer: B) Section 34
B) Section 34
C) Section 35
D) Section 36
Correct Answer: B) Section 34
Explanation: Section 34 states that entries in books of account, if regularly kept, are relevant but cannot alone be sufficient to charge a person with liability.
12. Which section explains the doctrine of estoppel?
A) Section 115
B) Section 116
C) Section 117
D) Section 118
Correct Answer: A) Section 115
B) Section 116
C) Section 117
D) Section 118
Correct Answer: A) Section 115
Explanation: Section 115 embodies the doctrine of estoppel, which prevents a person from denying facts they previously asserted to the detriment of another.
13. In what circumstances is expert opinion relevant under the Indian Evidence Act?
A) Section 45
B) Section 46
C) Section 47
D) Section 48
Correct Answer: A) Section 45
B) Section 46
C) Section 47
D) Section 48
Correct Answer: A) Section 45
Explanation: Section 45 allows expert opinion to be admitted when the court needs technical knowledge on subjects like handwriting, fingerprints, or medical science.
14. Which section deals with the relevancy of character evidence in criminal cases?
A) Section 52
B) Section 53
C) Section 54
D) Section 55
Correct Answer: B) Section 53
B) Section 53
C) Section 54
D) Section 55
Correct Answer: B) Section 53
Explanation: Section 53 states that the good character of the accused is relevant in criminal proceedings to infer their likelihood of innocence.
15. Under which section is burden of proof discussed?
A) Section 100
B) Section 101
C) Section 102
D) Section 103
Correct Answer: B) Section 101
B) Section 101
C) Section 102
D) Section 103
Correct Answer: B) Section 101
Explanation: Section 101 specifies that the burden of proof lies on the person who asserts the existence of facts in issue.
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Ruchika Mohapatra
Contributing author
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