Attempt this Practice Paper on Constitutional Law for CLAT and AILET PG and improve your understanding of the subject today!
QUESTIONS
1. Which Article of the Indian Constitution does not impose a duty but grants the right to citizens to protect the environment?
(A) Article 21
(B) Article 48A
(C) Article 51A(g)
(D) Article 32
(B) Article 48A
(C) Article 51A(g)
(D) Article 32
Correct Answer: (D) Article 32
Explanation: Article 32 is a fundamental right that provides the right to constitutional remedies, enabling citizens to seek the enforcement of other fundamental rights. Articles 48A and 51A(g) create duties for environmental protection, while Article 21 ensures the right to life and personal liberty, interpreted to include environmental protection.
2. What is the first case where the Supreme Court of India expressly acknowledged the doctrine of “basic structure” of the Constitution?
(A) Minerva Mills v. Union of India
(B) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
(C) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
(D) Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan
(B) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
(C) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
(D) Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan
Correct Answer: (C) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
Explanation: In this landmark 1973 case, the Supreme Court formulated the “basic structure doctrine,” holding that Parliament cannot amend key features of the Indian Constitution that form its basic structure.
3. Under which amendment was the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution introduced to shield laws from judicial review?
(A) First Amendment Act, 1951
(B) Seventh Amendment Act, 1956
(C) Forty-second Amendment Act, 1976
(D) Twenty-fourth Amendment Act, 1971
(B) Seventh Amendment Act, 1956
(C) Forty-second Amendment Act, 1976
(D) Twenty-fourth Amendment Act, 1971
Correct Answer: (A) First Amendment Act, 1951
Explanation: The Ninth Schedule was introduced by the First Amendment to protect specific legislations from judicial review, especially those related to land reforms.
4. Which of the following judgments declared that “Right to Privacy” is an integral part of Article 21 of the Constitution?
(A) A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
(B) K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India
(C) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
(D) Unni Krishnan v. State of Andhra Pradesh
(B) K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India
(C) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
(D) Unni Krishnan v. State of Andhra Pradesh
Correct Answer: (B) K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India
Explanation: In 2017, the Supreme Court pronounced that the right to privacy is intrinsic to the right to life and liberty under Article 21, overruling earlier contrary judgments.
5. Which of the following provisions cannot be amended by a simple majority in the Parliament?
(A) Creation of new states
(B) Procedure for amending the Constitution
(C) Union and State List division
(D) Abolition of legislative councils
(B) Procedure for amending the Constitution
(C) Union and State List division
(D) Abolition of legislative councils
Correct Answer: (B) Procedure for amending the Constitution
Explanation: Amending the procedure itself (Article 368) requires special legislative procedures and cannot be done via a simple majority.
6. The power of judicial review in India is derived from which Constitutional provision?
(A) Article 13 and Article 32
(B) Article 50
(C) Article 246 and Article 245
(D) Article 39 and Article 40
(B) Article 50
(C) Article 246 and Article 245
(D) Article 39 and Article 40
Correct Answer: (A) Article 13 and Article 32
Explanation: Article 13 invalidates laws contravening fundamental rights, and Article 32 allows the Supreme Court to enforce these rights, thereby ensuring judicial review.
7. Can the Governor of a state exercise discretionary powers in matters not explicitly mentioned in the Constitution?
(A) Yes, under Article 163
(B) No, only under emergency provisions
(C) Yes, only with Presidential consent
(D) No, under the principle of collective responsibility
(B) No, only under emergency provisions
(C) Yes, only with Presidential consent
(D) No, under the principle of collective responsibility
Correct Answer: (A) Yes, under Article 163
Explanation: Article 163 allows the Governor to act in discretion in cases where the Constitution permits him or her to do so, beyond the aid and advice of the council of ministers.
8. Under which Article can the Parliament legislate on a subject from the State List in the national interest?
(A) Article 249
(B) Article 250
(C) Article 256
(D) Article 312
(B) Article 250
(C) Article 256
(D) Article 312
Correct Answer: (A) Article 249
Explanation: Article 249 allows the Parliament to legislate on a matter from the State List if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution that it is necessary in national interest.
9. The principle of separation of powers, though not explicitly mentioned in the Indian Constitution, is derived from which Article?
(A) Article 50
(B) Article 72
(C) Article 356
(D) Article 312
(B) Article 72
(C) Article 356
(D) Article 312
Correct Answer: (A) Article 50
Explanation: Article 50 of the Directive Principles of State Policy directs the State to separate the judiciary from the executive, laying the foundation for the doctrine of separation of powers.
10. Which Supreme Court case upheld the validity of reservation for Economically Weaker Sections under the 103rd Constitutional Amendment?
(A) Ashoka Kumar Thakur v. Union of India
(B) S.R. Bommai v. Union of India
(C) Janhit Abhiyan v. Union of India
(D) Indra Sawhney v. Union of India
(B) S.R. Bommai v. Union of India
(C) Janhit Abhiyan v. Union of India
(D) Indra Sawhney v. Union of India
Correct Answer: (C) Janhit Abhiyan v. Union of India
Explanation: In 2022, the Supreme Court upheld the 103rd Amendment, which introduced reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) under Articles 15(6) and 16(6).
Read More: Questions on Landmark Cases in Constitutional Law
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Ruchika Mohapatra
Contributing author
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