Questions on Constitutional Law for CLAT PG 2026

A) Article 32 provides the right to constitutional remedies only against the state and not against private individuals
B) The Supreme Court can refuse to entertain a writ petition under Article 32 if an alternative remedy is available
C) Article 32 is subject to the Directive Principles of State Policy
D) The right to move the Supreme Court under Article 32 can be suspended only under Article 368

Correct Answer: B) The Supreme Court can refuse to entertain a writ petition under Article 32 if an alternative remedy is available

Explanation:
Article 32 provides a fundamental right to move the Supreme Court for the enforcement of fundamental rights. However, the Court has held in numerous cases that it may refuse to exercise its jurisdiction under Article 32 if an effective alternative remedy is available, such as approaching the High Court under Article 226. 2.

A) Public order
B) Defamation
C) Sedition
D) Blasphemy

Correct Answer: D) Blasphemy

Explanation: Article 19(2) allows the state to impose reasonable restrictions on the right to freedom of speech and expression in the interests of sovereignty, integrity of India, security of the State, friendly relations with foreign states, public order, decency, morality, contempt of court, defamation, and incitement to an offence. Blasphemy, as a concept, is not explicitly mentioned as a ground for restriction under Article 19(2).

A) A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras (1950)
B) Golaknath v. State of Punjab (1967)
C) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973)
D) Minerva Mills v. Union of India (1980)

Correct Answer: C) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973)

Explanation: In Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973), the Supreme Court ruled that while Parliament has the power to amend the Constitution under Article 368, it cannot alter the basic structure of the Constitution. This doctrine limits the amending power to prevent fundamental changes that would distort the identity of the Constitution.

A) Only when Parliament is not in session and there is an urgent need for legislation
B) At any time, if the President deems it necessary
C) Only when the Prime Minister advises the President to do so
D) When the Speaker of Lok Sabha and Chairman of Rajya Sabha recommend it

Correct Answer: A) Only when Parliament is not in session and there is an urgent need for legislation

Explanation: Under Article 123, the President can promulgate an ordinance only when both Houses of Parliament are not in session and if he/she is satisfied that circumstances exist requiring immediate action. However, such an ordinance must be laid before Parliament and ceases to operate after six weeks from the date of reassembly, unless it is approved by Parliament.

A) Article 32 and Article 136
B) Article 13 and Article 226
C) Article 368 and Article 143
D) Article 141 and Article 142

Correct Answer: B) Article 13 and Article 226

Explanation: Judicial review in India is primarily derived from Article 13, which declares that laws inconsistent with fundamental rights are void, and Article 226, which empowers High Courts to issue writs for the enforcement of rights. The Supreme Court and High Courts exercise judicial review to ensure laws comply with constitutional provisions.

A) Doctrine of Basic Structure
B) Doctrine of Colourable Legislation
C) Doctrine of Repugnancy
D) Doctrine of Pith and Substance

Correct Answer: C) Doctrine of Repugnancy

Explanation: The Doctrine of Repugnancy, found under Article 254, applies when there is a conflict between a law made by the Parliament and a law made by a State Legislature on a subject in the Concurrent List. If the two laws are irreconcilable, the central law prevails unless the state law has received the President’s assent.

A) First Amendment
B) Twenty-Fourth Amendment
C) Forty-Second Amendment
D) Forty-Fourth Amendment

Correct Answer: A) First Amendment

Explanation: The First Amendment (1951) introduced the Ninth Schedule to protect land reform laws from judicial review. However, in I.R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu (2007), the Supreme Court held that even laws placed under the Ninth Schedule could be judicially reviewed if they violate the basic structure.

A) Article 14
B) Article 17
C) Article 21
D) Article 15

Correct Answer: B) Article 17

Explanation: Article 17 of the Indian Constitution explicitly abolishes untouchability and makes its practice in any form a punishable offense. The Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955, was enacted to enforce this provision.

A) Indra Sawhney v. Union of India
B) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
C) E.P. Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu
D) State of West Bengal v. Anwar Ali Sarkar

Correct Answer: C) E.P. Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu (1974)

Explanation: In E.P. Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu (1974), the Supreme Court laid down a new dimension of equality, stating that arbitrariness is antithetical to equality. The triple test requires that:

A) Article 3
B) Article 1
C) Article 368
D) Article 370

Correct Answer: A) Article 3

Explanation: Article 3 of the Constitution empowers Parliament to form new states, alter boundaries, or change names of states through legislation. However, before introducing such a Bill, the President must refer it to the concerned State Legislature for its views.