This sectional test on Administrative Law has been designed to help CLAT PG aspirants assess and strengthen their understanding of key doctrines, case laws, and constitutional principles governing administrative action in India.
The questions reflect the analytical depth and legal reasoning expected in the CLAT PG exam.
Q1. The doctrine of “legitimate expectation” primarily arises from:
A. Article 14 of the Constitution
B. The principle of natural justice
C. The doctrine of estoppel
D. Parliamentary sovereignty
A. Article 14 of the Constitution
B. The principle of natural justice
C. The doctrine of estoppel
D. Parliamentary sovereignty
Q2. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court first explicitly recognize the doctrine of legitimate expectation?
A. Union of India v. Hindustan Development Corporation (1994)
B. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978)
C. State of Punjab v. Nestle India Ltd. (2004)
D. A.K. Kraipak v. Union of India (1970)
A. Union of India v. Hindustan Development Corporation (1994)
B. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978)
C. State of Punjab v. Nestle India Ltd. (2004)
D. A.K. Kraipak v. Union of India (1970)
Q3. Which of the following best describes the principle laid down in A.K. Kraipak v. Union of India (1970)?
A. Separation of powers must be strictly maintained.
B. The distinction between administrative and quasi-judicial functions is irrelevant for applying natural justice.
C. Substantive due process is part of Article 21.
D. Administrative discretion is unlimited.
A. Separation of powers must be strictly maintained.
B. The distinction between administrative and quasi-judicial functions is irrelevant for applying natural justice.
C. Substantive due process is part of Article 21.
D. Administrative discretion is unlimited.
Q4. The rule of audi alteram partem may be excluded:
A. Always, as administrative authorities are not bound by natural justice.
B. In cases where statutory exclusion is explicit or where prompt action is required in public interest.
C. Only in criminal proceedings.
D. Never, as it is a fundamental right.
A. Always, as administrative authorities are not bound by natural justice.
B. In cases where statutory exclusion is explicit or where prompt action is required in public interest.
C. Only in criminal proceedings.
D. Never, as it is a fundamental right.
Q5. Which of the following statements is not true about delegated legislation?
A. It allows the executive to make rules under the authority of the legislature.
B. It is subject to judicial review.
C. It is immune from constitutional challenge once published.
D. It must conform to the parent Act.
A. It allows the executive to make rules under the authority of the legislature.
B. It is subject to judicial review.
C. It is immune from constitutional challenge once published.
D. It must conform to the parent Act.
Q6. Which of the following doctrines prevents an authority from exercising a power it does not legally possess?
A. Doctrine of ultra vires
B. Doctrine of estoppel
C. Doctrine of res judicata
D. Doctrine of severability
A. Doctrine of ultra vires
B. Doctrine of estoppel
C. Doctrine of res judicata
D. Doctrine of severability
Q7. In Bennett Coleman & Co. v. Union of India (1973), the Supreme Court held:
A. Newspapers can be regulated under the Official Secrets Act.
B. Licensing requirements for media are constitutional.
C. Administrative orders cannot curtail fundamental rights arbitrarily.
D. Reasoned orders are mandatory in all administrative actions.
A. Newspapers can be regulated under the Official Secrets Act.
B. Licensing requirements for media are constitutional.
C. Administrative orders cannot curtail fundamental rights arbitrarily.
D. Reasoned orders are mandatory in all administrative actions.
Q8. According to Indian administrative law, when can the Writ of Mandamus not be issued?
A. When the duty in question is discretionary.
B. When the petitioner has a legal right.
C. When a statutory authority fails to perform its public duty.
D. When an authority acts contrary to law.
A. When the duty in question is discretionary.
B. When the petitioner has a legal right.
C. When a statutory authority fails to perform its public duty.
D. When an authority acts contrary to law.
Q9. The principle of post-decisional hearing was introduced in which of the following cases?
A. Olga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation (1985)
B. Delhi Transport Corporation v. DTC Mazdoor Congress (1991)
C. Swadeshi Cotton Mills v. Union of India (1981)
D. R.D. Shetty v. International Airport Authority (1979)
A. Olga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation (1985)
B. Delhi Transport Corporation v. DTC Mazdoor Congress (1991)
C. Swadeshi Cotton Mills v. Union of India (1981)
D. R.D. Shetty v. International Airport Authority (1979)
Q10. The term “fairness in action” in administrative law is most closely associated with:
A. Article 19(1)(a)
B. The Preamble
C. Principles of natural justice
D. Writ of Habeas Corpus
A. Article 19(1)(a)
B. The Preamble
C. Principles of natural justice
D. Writ of Habeas Corpus
Answer Key and Detailed Explanations
| Q. No. | Answer | Explanation |
| 1 | B | The doctrine of legitimate expectation arises from principles of natural justice and procedural fairness, not directly from a constitutional provision. It ensures that a public authority does not frustrate reasonable expectations it has created in a citizen. |
| 2 |
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Adtiya Aryan
Contributing author
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