Free Mock Paper for CLAT 2023
MOCK PAPER
- Sections
- English
- General Knowledge
- Logical Reasoning
- Legal Reasoning
- Quantitative Techniques
Marks: +1 for each correct answer, -0.25 for each wrong answer. 0 for unattempted.
ENGLISH (Qs 1 to 32)
Questions 1-5: Read the following passage to answer the given questions based on it:
One day Nandu rode his horse to the village fair. On his way back he met Somendra, the
merchant. The merchant was a crafty man, ready to do anything to earn some money. The
villages knew this. In fact, no one knew what trick he would be up to next.
merchant. The merchant was a crafty man, ready to do anything to earn some money. The
villages knew this. In fact, no one knew what trick he would be up to next.
Now, Nandu was poor and had no one in the world to call his own except a beautiful, white horse. He loved it more than anything else in the world. The merchant had his eye on the horse for a long time and tried to think of a way to get it for himself. Seeing Nandu, the merchant thought, “Nandu is a simpleton. Let me see if I can trick him out of his horse. So, he said to Nandu, you live all alone. How do you manage? What does a young boy like you need with a horse? Sell it to me and I shall make you rich in return.” Nandu replied, “No I don’t want to sell my horse.”
But the merchant refused to give up so easily. He offered Nandu more money. Finally, when the offer reached five hundred gold coins, Nandu paused and spoke. Five hundred gold coins seems like a good price. But I have a condition. If you agree to it, I shall give you, my horse. “What is it”, the merchant asked impatiently.”
“Give me the money right now and I shall give you my horse when I have given you ten lashes”, said Nandu. The merchant agreed instantly. After all he would resell the horse for over a thousand gold coins in the market! He would take twenty lashes for such a gain.
He ran home and got the money for Nandu and brought along his whip as well. Nandu counted the money carefully. He then took the whip and the lashes fell on the merchant’s back in quick succession. By the eighth lash the merchant was almost in tears, but he told himself that there were only two lashes to go and the horse would be his. The merchant held his breath waiting for the final lashes. But Nandu had mounted his horse and was riding off.
“Wait!”, shouted the merchant in anger. “What about the last lashes? Where are you going with the horse? We had a deal. Nandu stopped and said, “I agreed to give you the horse only after I had given you ten lashes. But it is upsetting my horse. I’ll give you the last lashes later. Till then goodbye!” “Come back you cheat!”, the merchant shouted. But the crowd that had gathered around agreed with Nandu.
A deal was a deal. Till the last lash was given, the horse could not belong to the merchant. Nandu rode away richer by five hundred gold coins and Somendra waited in vain for several days for the final lash which never came.
1. Why did the merchant offer to buy Nandu’s horse?
a. He had his eye on the horse for a while
b. It was his way of helping Nandu who was poor.
c. The horse would be useful for carrying goods to the market.
d. He hated Nandu and wanted to deprive him of something he loved.
b. It was his way of helping Nandu who was poor.
c. The horse would be useful for carrying goods to the market.
d. He hated Nandu and wanted to deprive him of something he loved.
2. Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage?
1. Nandu was an orphan.
2. The merchant was very persevering.
3. The merchant was fond of Nandu's horse.
a. None
b. Only 1
c. Both 1 & 2
d. All 1, 2 and 3
2. The merchant was very persevering.
3. The merchant was fond of Nandu's horse.
a. None
b. Only 1
c. Both 1 & 2
d. All 1, 2 and 3
3. Why did Nandu consider selling his horse to the merchant?
a. He had not managed to sell it at the village fair.
b. The merchant’s offer was more than what the horse was worth.
c. He could no longer afford to feed his horse.
d. None of the above.
b. The merchant’s offer was more than what the horse was worth.
c. He could no longer afford to feed his horse.
d. None of the above.
4. Which of the following words is the farthest in meaning from the word ‘crafty’?
a. Duplicitous
b. Guileful
c. Naive
d. Canny
b. Guileful
c. Naive
d. Canny
5. What made that merchant agree to Nandu’s strange condition for buying the horse? a. He wanted to show Nandu how brave he was. b. The thought of the profit he would make on selling the horse. c. The fear that Nandu would raise the price of his horse otherwise. d. He did not think that Nandu would whip him.
Questions 6-11: Read the following passage to answer the given questions based on it
Once upon a time there was a royal elephant which used to reside in the premises of the king’s palace. The elephant was very dear to the king, so he was well-fed and well-treated. There was also a dog who lived near the elephant’s shed. He was very weak and skinny. He was always fascinated by the smell of rich sweet rice being fed to the royal elephant.
One day, the dog could no longer resist the aroma of the rice and somehow managed to sneak into the elephant’s tent. He liked the rice so much that he started going there daily to eat the rice. For days, the huge elephant didn’t notice the small dog as he was busy enjoying the delicious food. Gradually, the dog grew bigger and stronger eating such rich food. Finally, the elephant noticed him and allowed him access to the food.
The elephant enjoyed the company of the dog and started sharing his food with him. They also started spending time with each other and soon became good friends. They ate together, slept together, and played together. While playing, the elephant would hold the dog in his trunk and swing him back and forth. Soon neither of them was happy without the other. They became great friends and didn’t want to be separated from each other.
Then one day, a man saw the dog and asked the elephant-keeper, “I want to buy this dog. What price do you want for it?” The elephant-keeper didn’t own the dog but sold it and extracted a sum of money from this deal. The man took the dog to his home village, which was far away. The king’s elephant became very sad after this incident. He missed his friend a lot and started neglecting everything. He didn’t want to do anything without his dear friend, so he stopped eating, drinking and even bathing.
Finally, the elephant-keeper reported this to the king; however, he didn’t mention anything about the dog. The king had a wise minister, who was known for his keen understanding of animals. The king ordered the minister, “Go to the elephant’s shed and find out the reason for the elephant’s condition”. The intelligent minister went to the elephant’s shed and found the elephant very sad. He examined the elephant and asked the elephant-keeper, “there is nothing wrong with this elephant’s body, then why does he look so sad? I think this elephant is grief stricken, possibly due to the loss of a dear friend. Do you know if this elephant shared a close friendship with anyone?”
The elephant-keeper said, “There was a dog who used to eat, sleep and play with the elephant. He was taken by a stranger three days ago”. The minister went back to the king and said, “Your majesty, in my opinion, the royal elephant is not sick, but he his lonesome without his dear friend, the dog”. The king said, “You’re right, friendship is one of the most wonderful things of life. Do you know where that dog is?”
The Minister replied, “the elephant-keeper has informed me that a stranger took him away and he doesn’t know his whereabouts”. The king asked, “How can we bring back my elephant’s friend and make him happy again?” The minister suggested, “Your Majesty, make a declaration, that whoever has the dog that used to live at the royal elephant’s shed will be penalized”.
The king did the same and the man who had taken the dog, instantly turned him loose when he heard the proclamation. As soon as he was freed, the dog ran back as fast as he could to the elephant’s shed. The elephant was so delighted to see the dog that he picked his friend up with his trunk and swung him back and forth. The dog wagged his tail, while the elephant's sparkled with happiness. The king was content to see the elephant happy once again and rewarded the minister for his wise judgment.
6. What was the minister’s diagnosis of the elephant’s condition?
a. The elephant hated his keeper b. The elephant was lonely c. The elephant was starving d. The elephant had hurt his leg and was in pain
7. What did the elephant-keeper do to the dog? a. He sold the dog to an unknown man for a price b. He hit the dog as the dog was eating the elephant's food c. He killed the dog d. He complained to the king about the dog
8. Which of the following words is farthest in meaning from the word content? a. Gratified b. Discontented c. Tranquil d. Placid
9. Which of the following would be the most appropriate title for the passage? a. Friends and enemies b. The playful Dog c. The elephant-keeper d. The bond of Friendship
10. Which of the following words is closest in meaning to the word ‘neglecting’?
a. Overeating b. Destroying c. Forsake d. Cherish
11. Which of the following can be said about the king?
1. He was compassionate.
2. He was deceitful.
3. He loved animals.
a. Only 1
2. He was deceitful.
3. He loved animals.
a. Only 1
b. Only 1 and 3
c. Only 1 and 2
d. All the above
c. Only 1 and 2
d. All the above
Questions 12-16: Answer based on information provided in the passage:
The AAP will hope that the Assembly polls are a referendum on its government’s work. Delhi, the Union Territory (UT) that hosts India’s capital city, might lag several states in total population and in area, but it enjoys outsize significance in terms of media and political attention. With 1.47 crore electors spread across the largely metropolitan national capital region and its pockets of rural voters in some suburbs, Delhi is expected, in polls scheduled on February 8, to reprise the three-cornered electoral fight which has been the norm in recent elections.
The Aam Aadmi Party, which graduated from a social movement to a political party less than a decade ago, will now seek to stand on its governance record, five years after nearly sweeping the Assembly results in 2015. The Bharatiya Janata Party will hope that unlike in Maharashtra, Jharkhand and Haryana, the legions of voters who supported it in the Lok Sabha election will not transfer their votes to its competitors, while the Congress will seek to regain the support of the UT’s poorer and marginalized sections, most of whom shifted allegiance to the AAP in 2015.
The AAP, if multiple opinion polls are to be believed, is on a strong wicket despite its setback in the Lok Sabha election where it won only 18% of the votes for the third place behind the BJP’s 56.6% and the Congress’ 22.5%. A Centre for the Study of Developing Societies-Lokniti survey of May 2019 found that most of Delhi’s voters who voted against the AAP for other parties in the national elections wanted the party to return to power in the Assembly election. This dichotomy in support could be explained by the reasonable satisfaction among voters with the welfare and development work done by the Arvind Kejriwal led government.
A PRS Legislative research report has shown that Delhi spends the most – nearly 40% of its
overall budget allocation compared to an average of 23% elsewhere in India-on education,
health, water supply and sanitation between 2011 and 2019. The AAP’s focus on improving
government-run primary education, health care (the Mohalla clinic scheme in particular), lowering electricity and water supply costs besides easing public transport woes (through schemes such as free ridership for women in government-run buses) has earned the party strong campaign points.
overall budget allocation compared to an average of 23% elsewhere in India-on education,
health, water supply and sanitation between 2011 and 2019. The AAP’s focus on improving
government-run primary education, health care (the Mohalla clinic scheme in particular), lowering electricity and water supply costs besides easing public transport woes (through schemes such as free ridership for women in government-run buses) has earned the party strong campaign points.
This could not yield dividends in May, as the party still does not have a coherent ideological position or a national presence, while voters were concerned with other issues such as national security that favored the BJP. The AAP’s incoherence on questions related to ideology was a drawback then, and that is the reason why it will seek to turn the polls into a referendum on its tenure. The BJP hopes to challenge the AAP on this turf after passing a Bill in December 2019 that came up with a legal framework to provide ownership rights to those living in Delhi’s unauthorized colonies. Whether this recent gesture, that is of importance to the roughly five million people in such areas, will sway voters remains to be seen.
12. In which of the following does Delhi enjoy outsize significance compared to other States? a. Population and area b. Media c. Political attention d. B and C
13. When and which election is expected to be held in Delhi?
a. May, Assembly Election
b. March, Municipality Election
c. February, Assembly Election
d. February, Municipality Election
b. March, Municipality Election
c. February, Assembly Election
d. February, Municipality Election
14. Which of the statements is incorrect?
a. The Aam Aadmi Party will now seek to stand on its governance record
b. The BJP will hope that unlike in Maharashtra, Jharkhand, and Haryana the voters will
not transfer their votes to its competitors
c. Congress will seek to regain the support of the UT’s urban and privileged sections
d. None of them
b. The BJP will hope that unlike in Maharashtra, Jharkhand, and Haryana the voters will
not transfer their votes to its competitors
c. Congress will seek to regain the support of the UT’s urban and privileged sections
d. None of them
15. Why will AAP seek to turn the polls into a referendum on its tenure?
a. The AAP still does not have a coherent ideological position or a national presence.
b. It has focus on improving government-run primary education, healthcare, lowering electricity and water supply costs. c. Delhi spends the most nearly 40% of its overall budget allocation on education, health, water supply. d. Delhi ‘s voters who voted against the AAP for other parties in the national elections wanted the party to return to power in Assembly election.
16. What is the meaning of the phrase “come up with”?
a. To reach an acceptable level or standard.
b. To find or produce an answer, a sum of money, etc.
c. To move towards somebody.
d. To rise.
b. To find or produce an answer, a sum of money, etc.
c. To move towards somebody.
d. To rise.
Questions 17-21: Answer based on the following passage.
The university is an ideal place to reflect. It is a magnet for people who like to be critical, in the two meanings of the word: “Inclined to find fault” and the “art or act of judging the quality” of something. Many academics are certainly inclined to find fault. But that becomes useful when it is combined with the art of judging quality: to see beneath, above, and beyond the obvious, to the deeper and higher meaning of important things. This is what can make the university such a powerful setting for the development of managers. And it is what makes so unfortunate current trends in the business schools toward hype and “businesslike” behavior.
The classrooms common in business schools today line up students in neat rows so that they can all see the professor. That setup may be fine for conveying information from the front, but it hardly facilitates sharing among everyone else. Arching these rows in the shape of a U so that the students can also see each other for case discussions may be an improvement, but that puts attention on the individual, not the group, especially that individual at the front, in the so-called pit. These are classrooms designed more for competition than collaboration, for making points more than for sharing experiences. They speed things up; they do not slow them down.
The classroom may not be the workplace, but it should at least be compatible with it. A flat classroom with round tables facilitates natural discussion in small groups alongside formal presentations. There is no need to “break out”. Managers can go in and out of reflective discussions on a moment’s notice. Each table becomes a little learning community, within the larger learning community that is the whole classroom. And by varying how people sit “company groups, by job concerns, cross-culturally, and so on” the focus of discussion around the tables can be varied.
Surprise inputs from students in the form of intriguing questions or trivia about the topic at hand should not be treated as a hindrance to the flow of a teacher and instead, be welcomed as an opportunity to learn from. While the conventional classroom clearly shows itself to be designed for the faculty, this kind of seating allows the managers to assume co-ownership of the space. Adaptable educating in a flexible space requires an adaptable and facilitating faculty. The faculty certainly must be designers “architects of the learning experience” but as architecture was discussed earlier: not by designing and drawing, to create rigid structures, but by establishing flexible superstructures that can adapt to the people inside.
The faculty, in other words, must be the designers of an ongoing social process as much as the conveyers of conceptual knowledge. And unlike most architects today, they must remain on site while their designs become reality. Bloom has likened this role to midwifery, in that the faculty help facilitate a perfectly natural process. Just because people are called professors does not mean they have to spend so much time professing.
17. What is implied about the role that teachers need to play in a classroom?
a. They need to increase the hype of a business-like environment in classrooms.
b. They need to introduce interesting material and then engage the class with it by
stimulating, listening, and integrating.
c. They are the gardeners who cannot really cause a plant to grow; all they can do is to
ensure that the water and nutrients are in place.
d. They need to be first and foremost learners themselves and practice what they preach.
b. They need to introduce interesting material and then engage the class with it by
stimulating, listening, and integrating.
c. They are the gardeners who cannot really cause a plant to grow; all they can do is to
ensure that the water and nutrients are in place.
d. They need to be first and foremost learners themselves and practice what they preach.
18. What can be implied about the role that a ‘surprise deviation from the plan because of student inputs must play in education?
a. Because they interrupt the flow of a lesson plan, they are discouraged; though it is alright
to have them happen occasionally.
b. "Surprises" create revolutions in the classroom; and most revolutions serve little purpose,
as the new regime that emerges is usually as bad as the old one.
c. Surprises are what cause learning in a professor and hence also in students.
d. They are unwelcome because they indicate a deficiency in the planning skills of the
faculty.
to have them happen occasionally.
b. "Surprises" create revolutions in the classroom; and most revolutions serve little purpose,
as the new regime that emerges is usually as bad as the old one.
c. Surprises are what cause learning in a professor and hence also in students.
d. They are unwelcome because they indicate a deficiency in the planning skills of the
faculty.
19. Based on your understanding of the passage, the word teacher can be replaced by which of the following words?
a. Mentor
b. Facilitator
c. Leader
d. Philosopher
b. Facilitator
c. Leader
d. Philosopher
20. Which of the following quotes would the author most strongly disagree with? a. “I am always ready to learn, although I do not always like to be taught” – Winston Churchill. b. “I need the fix of talking in front of a group of people about something I enjoy”- B School Professor quoted in Business Week. c. “By its very nature, teaching homogenizes both its subjects and its objects. Learning, on the other hand, liberates”- Bennis. d. “Everybody who is incapable of learning has taken to teaching” – Oscar Wilde.
21. As used in the passage, the phrase “break out” means? a. To break ranks: that is to speak out of turn. b. To challenge the teacher by having a point of view which is contrary to that of the teacher. c. To start abruptly when the teacher gets straight to problems without giving any introductory background material in class. d. To stop the teaching for some time, so that the class can then discuss amongst themselves.
Questions 22-26: Answer based on the following passage.
Based on the risk of international spread of poliovirus, the World Health Organization announced on January 7 that polio will continue to remain a Public Health Emergency of International Concern (PHEIC) for three months. The decision was taken based on the recommendation of the emergency committee under the international health regulations that assessed the situation last month. The committee arrived at the unanimous decision based on the “rising risk” of international spread of wild poliovirus type 1.
Polio was declared a PHEIC in 2014 and has continued to remain one since then. There were 156 cases of wild polio type-1 cases in 2019 compared with 28 in 2018. With 128 cases, Pakistan accounted for the greatest number of cases, while Afghanistan reported 28 cases. Besides the four-fold increase in cases, there were instances of the wild type-1 virus getting exported from Pakistan to Iran and Afghanistan, as also on the spread from Afghanistan to Pakistan. In addition to the virus causing polio in children, it was found in the environment in Pakistan and, to a lesser extent, in Afghanistan. This is particularly a
concern as the number of children not vaccinated in Afghanistan has been increasing.
concern as the number of children not vaccinated in Afghanistan has been increasing.
In 2018, a total of 8,60,000 children in Afghanistan did not receive polio vaccine due to security threats. The situation did not improve in 2019 and, as a result, a large cohort of children in the southern region of the country remains unprotected. Therefore, even other parts of the country that have been free of the virus in the past are at risk of outbreaks.
An equally disturbing development is on the outbreak of vaccine-derived poliovirus cases in 16 countries; in all, there were 249 vaccine-derived poliovirus cases in 2019. Surprisingly, of them, only 30 were in countries where vaccine-derived poliovirus is endemic.
An equally disturbing development is on the outbreak of vaccine-derived poliovirus cases in 16 countries; in all, there were 249 vaccine-derived poliovirus cases in 2019. Surprisingly, of them, only 30 were in countries where vaccine-derived poliovirus is endemic.
The rapid emergence of multiple circulating vaccine-derived poliovirus type-2 strains in several countries is unprecedented and very concerning, and not yet fully understood, the committee noted. But not a single case of vaccine-derived poliovirus was reported from Afghanistan, while Pakistan had just 12 cases. In comparison, the number of cases in Angola was 86 and the Democratic Republic of the Congo was 63. While Nigeria reported 18 cases of vaccine-derived poliovirus, not a single cases of wild poliovirus type-1 has been reported from the country for over three years; the last reported case was in August 2016.
A country is said to have eradicated polio when no new case of wild poliovirus is reported for three successive years. Nigeria is all set to be declared as having eradicated polio this year, and in turn, the entire African region will become free of wild poliovirus.
22. When is a country said to have eradicated polio?
a. When no new case of wild poliovirus is reported for three successive years
b. When the emergency committee assessed the situation of that country and declared in free of police. c. When a country has been successful to have vaccinated all the children d. When a country improved its situation compared to last year's for three successive years.
23. Why does a large cohort of children in the southern region of Afghanistan remain unprotected from Polio?
a. The poliovirus was found to some extent in environment
b. Afghanistan did not receive polio vaccine due to security threats
c. Afghanistan is adjacent to Pakistan which has accounted for the greatest number of
cases causing the export of the virus to neighboring countries
d. The number of polio cases in Afghanistan is 28 that may lead further increase in the
spread of the virus
a. The poliovirus was found to some extent in environment
b. Afghanistan did not receive polio vaccine due to security threats
c. Afghanistan is adjacent to Pakistan which has accounted for the greatest number of
cases causing the export of the virus to neighboring countries
d. The number of polio cases in Afghanistan is 28 that may lead further increase in the
spread of the virus
24. Which of the following countries is all set to be declared as having eradicated polio this year?
a. Congo
b. India
c. Nigeria
d. Angola
b. India
c. Nigeria
d. Angola
25. Which of the following statements is true?
a. Afghanistan is reported not to have even a single case of vaccine-derived poliovirus
b. Nigeria reported 18 cases of vaccine-deprived poliovirus.
c. Nigeria is all set to be declared as having eradicated polio this year
d. All of them.
b. Nigeria reported 18 cases of vaccine-deprived poliovirus.
c. Nigeria is all set to be declared as having eradicated polio this year
d. All of them.
26. Choose the synonym of the word “outbreak”; given in the passage.
a. Increase
b. Developing
c. Insurgency
d. Calm
b. Developing
c. Insurgency
d. Calm
Questions 27 – 32: Answer based on the information provided in the passage
Eight days after 9/11, as United States combat jets began bombing Taliban positions across
Afghanistan, General Pervez Musharraf went on air to warn his nation it stood at a fateful
crossroad. In and outside the Pakistan Army, powerful voices were urging the country to defy America, and fight alongside the Taliban to defend its Islamic Emirate. “Our critical assets,” Pakistan’s military ruler responded, “are our sovereignty, second our economy, third our strategic assets, and fourth our Kashmir cause. All four will be harmed if we make the wrong decision,” he warned.
Afghanistan, General Pervez Musharraf went on air to warn his nation it stood at a fateful
crossroad. In and outside the Pakistan Army, powerful voices were urging the country to defy America, and fight alongside the Taliban to defend its Islamic Emirate. “Our critical assets,” Pakistan’s military ruler responded, “are our sovereignty, second our economy, third our strategic assets, and fourth our Kashmir cause. All four will be harmed if we make the wrong decision,” he warned.
“Bravery without thinking is stupidity.” In a closed-door briefing to Pakistan’s political leadership this week, Army chief General Qamar Bajwa and Inter-Services Intelligence (ISI) director-general Lieutenant-General Faiz Hameed made much the same speech again. Islamabad’s influence with the Taliban had waned as its victory neared. The Army’s calls for the Taliban to end fighting and share power in Afghanistan, the Generals explained, weren’t being heeded. The Taliban remained enmeshed with the Tehrik- e-Taliban Pakistan, or TTP, as well as al-Qaeda.
For twenty years, the ISI nursed the Taliban in the darkness, plotting its triumph. As the last American troops withdraw from Afghanistan, and the Taliban reach for military victory, their dream is revealed to be a nightmare. Despite this bitter experience, a succession of envoys for United States presidents—from Richard Holbrook to Zalmay Khalilzad—gambled that the ISI would be able to deliver the Taliban.
America knew the ISI was providing the Taliban with safe havens and resources. Islamabad was, moreover, unwilling to allow negotiations which excluded it. In 2010, it detained top Taliban leader Abdul Ghani Baradar, suspected of negotiating with the United States, and only released him eight years later.
Yet, the potential payoff from a deal seemed high. “We need Pakistan’s army and ISI to
dismantle al-Qaeda,” former Central Intelligence Agency (CIA) chief George Tenet reasoned, “and Pakistan’s stability and interests are at least as important to the United States as Afghanistan’s recovery from Taliban rule.”
dismantle al-Qaeda,” former Central Intelligence Agency (CIA) chief George Tenet reasoned, “and Pakistan’s stability and interests are at least as important to the United States as Afghanistan’s recovery from Taliban rule.”
27. Which country does ISI serve?
a. Pakistan b. Afghanistan c. Tajikistan d. Iran
28. What has been the long-term relationship between ISI and Taliban?
a. Hatred
b. Nurturing
c. Friendly
d. Hostile
a. Hatred
b. Nurturing
c. Friendly
d. Hostile
29. What is the result of US withdrawal from Afghanistan?
a. Resurgence of Taliban
b. Peaceful existence
c. War
d. Insurgency
b. Peaceful existence
c. War
d. Insurgency
30. “Bravery without thinking is stupidity” – in what context was this sentence mentioned in the passage?
a. Going to war with India
b. Responding to US bombing Taliban
c. Annexing India’s territory- Kashmir
d. Going to war with Afghanistan.
a. Going to war with India
b. Responding to US bombing Taliban
c. Annexing India’s territory- Kashmir
d. Going to war with Afghanistan.
31. With which of the following is the Taliban NOT associated with?
a. ISI
b. Al-Qaueda
c. Amnesty international
d. Tehrik-e-Taliban Pakistan
a. ISI
b. Al-Qaueda
c. Amnesty international
d. Tehrik-e-Taliban Pakistan
32. Which of the following words is farthest in meaning from the word “terrorism”?
a. Peace b. Aggression c. Violence d. Anarchism
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (Qs 33 to 68)
Question 33- 37
The first phase of _(33)_ Exercise is to be held in Bay of Bengal between November 3, 2020 and November 6, 2020. The navies of India,_(34)_, US and _(34)_are to participate in the exercise. The second phase of the exercise is to be held between November 17, 2020 and November 20, 2020. (Source: https://www.gktoday.in/current-affairs)
33. Name the exercise?
a. Malabar
b. PASEX
c. JIMEX
d. INDRA
b. PASEX
c. JIMEX
d. INDRA
34. Which of the following pairs of countries are participating in this exercise?
a. Japan-Indonesia
b. Sri Lanka-Indonesia
c. Japan-Australia
d. Thailand-Sri Lanka
a. Japan-Indonesia
b. Sri Lanka-Indonesia
c. Japan-Australia
d. Thailand-Sri Lanka
35. Where is this exercise supposed to be held?
a. Sea of Japan
b. Bay of Bengal
c. Arabian Sea
d. Pacific Ocean
b. Bay of Bengal
c. Arabian Sea
d. Pacific Ocean
36. What is the naval exercise between India and Russia known as?
a. CORPAT
b. PASEX
c. SIMEX
d. INDRA
b. PASEX
c. SIMEX
d. INDRA
37. What is the name of the India-Bangladesh naval exercise?
a. SLIMEX
b. PASEX
c. BONGOSAGAR
d. CORPAT
b. PASEX
c. BONGOSAGAR
d. CORPAT
Questions 38- 42
The _(1)_, 2020 was released by Public Affairs Centre, a non-profit organization. According to the index, _(2)_was the best governed state. The report was released by the committee headed by a former Indian Space Research Organization chairman K. Kasturirangan. (Source: https://www.gktoday.in/)
38. Name the index mentioned in (1)?
a. Good Governance index
b. Inequality index
c. Just Governance index
d. Public Affairs Index
a. Good Governance index
b. Inequality index
c. Just Governance index
d. Public Affairs Index
39. Which of the following states was ranked as the best-governed state in India in the category of large states, mentioned in (2)?
a. Kerala
b. Andhra Pradesh
c. Tamil Nadu
d. Karnataka
a. Kerala
b. Andhra Pradesh
c. Tamil Nadu
d. Karnataka
40. Which state was labelled as the worst-governed state in the large state category?
a. Goa
b. Uttar Pradesh
c. Punjab
d. Maharashtra
a. Goa
b. Uttar Pradesh
c. Punjab
d. Maharashtra
41. Which state was labelled as the best governed state in the small states category? a. Punjab b. Meghalaya c. Goa d. Tripura
42. According to this index, which is the best-governed UT in the country?
a. Dadra and Nagar Haveli
b. Chandigarh
c. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
d. Lakshadweep
a. Dadra and Nagar Haveli
b. Chandigarh
c. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
d. Lakshadweep
Questions 43- 47
The _(1)_ countries recently issued a joint statement expressing their concern about increasing Chinese curbs on the autonomy of_(2)_. The joint statement was issued following the postponement of Legislative Council elections that was due in September 2020 and imposition of national security law in _(2)_. (Source: https://www.gktoday.in)
43. What is the name of the alliance mentioned in (1)? a. Quad b. Shanghai Cooperation Organization c. One Belt One Road d. Five Eyes
44. On which among the following regions’ autonomy were restrictions placed by the Chinese government?
a. Xinjiang
b. Hong Kong
c. Tibet
d. Rakhine
b. Hong Kong
c. Tibet
d. Rakhine
45. Which of the following countries is not part of the alliance? a. USA
b. UK c. Australia d. India
46. In which year did the region mentioned in (2) officially become a part of China?
a. 1996
b. 1997
c. 1998
d. 2000
a. 1996
b. 1997
c. 1998
d. 2000
47. The region used to be the colony of which Western country?
a. UK
b. Netherlands
c. France
d. Spain
a. UK
b. Netherlands
c. France
d. Spain
Question 48- 51
48. Pangong Lake is in which of the following states? Source: https://www.gktoday.in
a. Assam
b. Meghalaya
c. Sikkim
d. Manipur
b. Meghalaya
c. Sikkim
d. Manipur
49. The World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA) has extended the suspension of the National Dope Testing Laboratory (NDTL) of which country? (Source: https://www.gktoday.in)
a. China
b. India
c. Russia
d. United States
a. China
b. India
c. Russia
d. United States
50. Which of the following cricketers was recently made a member of the House of Lords of the British Parliament?
a. Ian Botham
b. Viv Richards
c. Graham Gooch
d. Geoffrey Boycott
b. Viv Richards
c. Graham Gooch
d. Geoffrey Boycott
51. Ciro Immobile is associated with which of the following sports?
a. Cricket
b. Football
c. Hockey
d. Basketball
a. Cricket
b. Football
c. Hockey
d. Basketball
Questions 52-56
The Supreme Court stayed the implementation of three controversial farm laws, calling its order “extraordinary” and a “victory for fair play”. The stay on their implementation means the Centre cannot, for the time being, proceed with any executive actions to enforce the laws. The Court formed a four-member committee of experts “to listen to the grievances of the farmers on the farm laws and the views of the government and make recommendations”.
At one point in the 11- page order, a [N]-judge Bench led by Chief Justice of India (CJI) Sharad A. Bobde said the formation of an expert committee “may create a congenial atmosphere and improve the trust and confidence of the farmers”. The stay, the court said, “may assuage the hurt feelings of the farmers” and make them confident enough to scythe their way to the negotiating table in good faith. In a concluding paragraph of the order, the court said the farmers’ bodies would “perceive” the “extraordinary” stay as an achievement of their peaceful protest “at least for the present”. It may convince these organisations to “encourage” their members to go home to their livelihoods, and thus, protect their lives and health and that of others too.
The court said several rounds of negotiations between the Centre and farmers had produced no results, even as senior citizens, women, and children among the protesters were exposed to serious health hazards posed by the cold and COVID-19. It noted that deaths, not due to violence, but either of illness or by way of suicide, had occurred already. The court lauded the peaceful nature of the protests and stated that it did not want to stifle it.
However, it noted Attorney General [ABC]’s “support” of a “specific averment” by the Indian Kisan Union that an organisation, Sikhs for Justice, banned for anti- India secessionist movement, is financing the agitation. The court order made it clear that farmers’ bodies “shall” participate in the discussions of the committee. “The representatives of all the farmers’ bodies, whether they are holding a protest or not and whether they support or oppose the laws shall participate in the deliberations of the committee and put forth their viewpoints,” it directed. The order explained that both the government and farmers should take the court’s effort to form a committee in the “right spirit” and consider it an attempt to reach a “fair, equitable and just solution to problems”.
52. Which among the following is not one of the three controversial farm laws being discussed about in the above passage?
a. The Farmers’ Produce Trade and Commerce (Promotion and Facilitation) Act
b. The Essential Commodities (Amendment) Act
c. The Farmers (Empowerment and Protection) Agreement on Price Assurance and Farm
Services Act
d. The Farmers (Removal of Minimum Support Price) Contractual Services Act
a. The Farmers’ Produce Trade and Commerce (Promotion and Facilitation) Act
b. The Essential Commodities (Amendment) Act
c. The Farmers (Empowerment and Protection) Agreement on Price Assurance and Farm
Services Act
d. The Farmers (Removal of Minimum Support Price) Contractual Services Act
53. Who is the current Attorney General of India?
a. KK Venugopal
b. Tushar Mehta
c. Mukul Rohatgi
d. Harish Salve
a. KK Venugopal
b. Tushar Mehta
c. Mukul Rohatgi
d. Harish Salve
54. What is the strength of the Bench that passed the order in the above passage? Identify [N].
a. 5
b. Single-judge bench
c. 3
d. 2
a. 5
b. Single-judge bench
c. 3
d. 2
55. Which among the following are not a part of the Committee formed by the Supreme Court as mentioned in the above passage?
a. National President, Bhartiya Kisan Union and All India Kisan Coordination Committee
b. Dr. Parmod Kumar Joshi, agricultural economist, Director for South Asia, International
Food Policy Research Institute
c. Ashok Gulati, agricultural economist and former chairman of the Commission for
Agricultural Costs and Prices
d. Parshottam Rupala, Minister of State, Ministry of Agriculture and Farmer’s Welfare
b. Dr. Parmod Kumar Joshi, agricultural economist, Director for South Asia, International
Food Policy Research Institute
c. Ashok Gulati, agricultural economist and former chairman of the Commission for
Agricultural Costs and Prices
d. Parshottam Rupala, Minister of State, Ministry of Agriculture and Farmer’s Welfare
56. Which of the following statements about MSP (Minimum Support Price) is/are not true?
a. After a good harvest, if there is a fall in the prices of the crops, the government purchases
at the MSP
b. The Farmer’s Unions solely decide the MSP for various crops and suggest it to the
government for implementation
c. The MSP was announced by the government for the first time in 1966-67
d. All of the above
a. After a good harvest, if there is a fall in the prices of the crops, the government purchases
at the MSP
b. The Farmer’s Unions solely decide the MSP for various crops and suggest it to the
government for implementation
c. The MSP was announced by the government for the first time in 1966-67
d. All of the above
Questions 57- 61
The Human Freedom Index is published by the Cato Institute and [1]. It uses data from 2008 to 2018. According to the Index, there has been a decrease in personal freedom since 2008 globally. India ranked [2] in the Human Freedom Index, 2020. In 2019, India ranked 94th. The Index uses 79 distinct indicators of personal and economic freedom. It covers the size of the Government, rule of law, security and safety, civil society, size of government, property rights, expression, religion, freedom to trade internationally, etc. The predecessor of Human Freedom Index was Index of Freedom in the World
The scores of India in the Human Freedom Index were as follows:
• India scored 6.30 out of 10 in Personal freedom.
• India scored 6.56 out of 10 in Economic Freedom.
• India scored 6.43 out of 10 in Human Freedom.
India ranked 142 in the Press Freedom Index that was released in April 2020.
• India scored 6.56 out of 10 in Economic Freedom.
• India scored 6.43 out of 10 in Human Freedom.
India ranked 142 in the Press Freedom Index that was released in April 2020.
According to Democracy Watchdog Freedom House Report, Internet Freedom in India declined for the third straight year in 2019-20.
57. Which of the following will replace [1] in the above passage?
a. Reporters without borders
b. Fraser Institute
c. Concern Worldwide
d. Welthungerhilfe
a. Reporters without borders
b. Fraser Institute
c. Concern Worldwide
d. Welthungerhilfe
58. Which of the following Country topped the list of Human Freedom Index?
a. Hong Kong b. Norway c. Switzerland d. New Zealand
59. Which of the following Country ranked last in the rankings?
a. Saudi Arabia
b. Turkey
c. Syria
d. Iraq
a. Saudi Arabia
b. Turkey
c. Syria
d. Iraq
60. Which of the following will replace [2] in the above passage?
a. 104
b. 108
c. 110
d. 111
a. 104
b. 108
c. 110
d. 111
61. Cato Institute is a think tank based in which of the following countries?
a. USA
b. UK
c. New Zealand
d. Norway
a. USA
b. UK
c. New Zealand
d. Norway
Questions 62- 66
Against expectations of getting a second extension, the senior-most deputy governor [A] retired from the Reserve Bank on completion of his one-year extension on Friday. Kanungo joined the RBI in 1982 and was in charge of currency management, external investments, operations, payment, and settlement system, among others, during the four-year term as the deputy governor, which began in April 2017.
The Reserve Bank of India, headed by Governor Shaktikanta Das, can have a maximum of [B] Deputy Governors. [C] are the other Deputy Governors working at the central bank/
62. Identify the name of the person whose name has been replaced with [A] in the passage? a. Michael Debabrata Patra. b. B P Kanungo. c. S. Jaishankar. d. M K Jain
63. What is the prescribed maximum number of deputy governors at present?
a. Four
b. Two
c. Three
d. None of the above
a. Four
b. Two
c. Three
d. None of the above
64. In which year was the Reserve Bank of India established?
a. 1935
b. 1923.
c. 1951.
d. None of the above
a. 1935
b. 1923.
c. 1951.
d. None of the above
65. Who was the first governor of Reserve Bank of India?
a. C.D. Deshmukh
b. Duvvuri Subbarao
c. Osborn Smith
d. S. Venkatraman
a. C.D. Deshmukh
b. Duvvuri Subbarao
c. Osborn Smith
d. S. Venkatraman
66. Which of the following will replace ‘C’ in the above passage?
a. Mahesh Kumar Jain, Michael Patra and Rajeshwar Rao
b. Viral Acharya, Michael Patra and Rajeshwar Rao
c. Michael Patra, MK Jain and Viral V Acharya
d. Shaktikant Das, Viral V Acharya and MK Jain
a. Mahesh Kumar Jain, Michael Patra and Rajeshwar Rao
b. Viral Acharya, Michael Patra and Rajeshwar Rao
c. Michael Patra, MK Jain and Viral V Acharya
d. Shaktikant Das, Viral V Acharya and MK Jain
Questions 67-68
Security and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has cleared amendments to SEBI (Listing
Obligations and Disclosure Requirements) Regulations, 2015 while reviewing regulatory
provisions related to (X). Among other proposals, the watchdog has decided to allow resident Indian fund managers to be constituents of foreign portfolio investors and amend mutual funds rules to provide for the investment of a minimum amount as “skin in the game” in the schemes by asset management companies (AMCs) based on the risk associated with such schemes.
Obligations and Disclosure Requirements) Regulations, 2015 while reviewing regulatory
provisions related to (X). Among other proposals, the watchdog has decided to allow resident Indian fund managers to be constituents of foreign portfolio investors and amend mutual funds rules to provide for the investment of a minimum amount as “skin in the game” in the schemes by asset management companies (AMCs) based on the risk associated with such schemes.
The amendments have taken place to boost corporate governance between listed companies, SEBI approved amendments to rules that govern appointment, re-appointment, and removal of independent directors. It also amended the rules that requires to disclose resignation letters of such individuals.
67. Which of the following replace (X)?
a. SPAC Regulations
b. Independent directors
c. AMC Regulations
d. IPO issue regulations
a. SPAC Regulations
b. Independent directors
c. AMC Regulations
d. IPO issue regulations
68. Which of the following information is not correct?
a. Appointment, re-appointment, and removal of independent directors will be done
only through special resolution passed by shareholders.
b. Process to be followed by Nomination and Remuneration Committee (NRC) when it is
selecting candidates for appointment as independent directors was made transparent.
c. Presently, investment of 1% of the amount raised in a New Fund Offer (NFO) or an
amount of Rs 50 lakh (whichever is less) is required.
d. Accredited investors cannot be individuals, HUFs, family trusts, partnership firms, sole
proprietorships, trusts and body corporates based on financial parameters.
a. Appointment, re-appointment, and removal of independent directors will be done
only through special resolution passed by shareholders.
b. Process to be followed by Nomination and Remuneration Committee (NRC) when it is
selecting candidates for appointment as independent directors was made transparent.
c. Presently, investment of 1% of the amount raised in a New Fund Offer (NFO) or an
amount of Rs 50 lakh (whichever is less) is required.
d. Accredited investors cannot be individuals, HUFs, family trusts, partnership firms, sole
proprietorships, trusts and body corporates based on financial parameters.
LOGICAL REASONING
Questions 69-72: Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow
The Inclusive Kochi Metro and Its Many Firsts!
Kochi Metro has come as a pleasant dawn not just for the people of Kochi but has given
something to celebrate nationwide. Being in the news for the many firsts that the metro has incorporated, its initiatives are in the right direction towards a more inclusive, equal, and accepting future.
something to celebrate nationwide. Being in the news for the many firsts that the metro has incorporated, its initiatives are in the right direction towards a more inclusive, equal, and accepting future.
Of the many steps taken by the corporation like having pillars with vertical gardens, using solar power, open loop metro cards, and using Communication Based Train Control (CBTC) to make unmanned trains possible, the metro is especially being lauded nationwide for its inclusivity in employing a large number of women, and also members of the transgender community, and for keeping in mind the needs of the differently abled, and for leaving its workers with a heartfelt parting gift.
The metro corporation had joined hands with social welfare group Kudumbasree by employing 500 of their women who will do various duties including loco piloting. The move has definitely encouraged a women workforce, and made the metro more women friendly. According to a Deccan Chronicle report, women had applied for jobs in large numbers. A step further, the metro has also employed 23 people from the transgender community for departments like housekeeping and customer care. This is the first time in India that a state-owned company has officially hired so many transgender employees. The move is in line with Kerala’s Transgender policy of 2015, which was also the first of its kind.
A video shared by Kerala Information on 16th June featuring trans people has been in much light. The video talks about exactly how they want to be and should be treated – like any other person doing their work. The video, and more importantly this move by the Kochi metro has broken some very hard stereotypes and are earning well-deserved praise for the same. The joy that many received via this metro would not have been possible without their workers, and the corporation made sure to extend a heartfelt gratitude to them.
Before the official launch, migrant workers who came from places like Bihar and Bengal were treated by the Kochi Metro Rail Corporation to a traditional Keralite lunch and a dance party. They were also urged to write on a message board. According to a report by Mid-day the workers often worked 12 hours a day for a nominal pay. The second day after the launch of the metro was special for differently abled children and elderly people. Deccan Chronicle reports around 450 differently abled people, 130 inmates of
different institutions, and 20 children from the institution.
different institutions, and 20 children from the institution.
Owing to the high elderly population in the state, the metro was a much-needed respite from the otherwise uncomfortable road transport for the elderly. The initiatives taken by the Kochi metro have made people happy all over, and rightly so, making this past weekend filled with excitement for the people of Kochi, and a brilliant example for other cities and corporations.
69. What is the type of passage as written by the author?
a. Abstract
b. Analytical
c. Descriptive
d. Argumentative
a. Abstract
b. Analytical
c. Descriptive
d. Argumentative
70. What is the tone of the tone of the author of the passage? a. Happy b. Neutral c. Critical d. None of the above
71. Kochi Metro has been praised for its …. a. Neutrality b. Effective management c. Inclusivity d. All the above
72. Which of the following makes Kochi Metro stand out?
a. Women’s involvement in the activities
b. Inclusion of the LGBT+ community
c. Priority given to the elderly
d. All the above.
a. Women’s involvement in the activities
b. Inclusion of the LGBT+ community
c. Priority given to the elderly
d. All the above.
Question 73 and 74:
Every question below has a few statements, followed by fourconclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. Consider each of the statements to be true and then decide which of the conclusions can be logically derived
73. Statement:
I. Some pens are pencils.
II. All pencils are tables.
III. Some erasers are tables.
Conclusions
I. Some pens are tables.
II. Some erasers are apples.
III. Some pencils are erasers.
IV. Some pencils are pens.
I. Some pens are pencils.
II. All pencils are tables.
III. Some erasers are tables.
Conclusions
I. Some pens are tables.
II. Some erasers are apples.
III. Some pencils are erasers.
IV. Some pencils are pens.
Options:
a. Only I follow
b. Only I and II follow
c. Only I and IV follow
d. Either II or III and I follow
a. Only I follow
b. Only I and II follow
c. Only I and IV follow
d. Either II or III and I follow
74. Statement:
I. All apples are watermelons.
II. Some apples are fresh.
III. Some potatoes are fresh.
Conclusions
I. Some fresh are apples.
II. No fresh is an apple.
III. Some potatoes are watermelons.
IV. No potato is a watermelon.
Options
a. Only I and II follow
b. III and either I or II follow
c. Only III follows
d. Either I or II, and either III or IV
I. All apples are watermelons.
II. Some apples are fresh.
III. Some potatoes are fresh.
Conclusions
I. Some fresh are apples.
II. No fresh is an apple.
III. Some potatoes are watermelons.
IV. No potato is a watermelon.
Options
a. Only I and II follow
b. III and either I or II follow
c. Only III follows
d. Either I or II, and either III or IV
Questions 75-77
Nine persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I are watching a movie in a theatre sitting in a row facing North. B is at one end of the row. H is seated adjacent to both F and G. C is to the immediate right of D and at the third place to the right of E. A is immediate left of F. F is at the third place to the left of B. Find out: 75. What is the position of F with respect to D?
a. Third to the right
b. Third to the left
c. Immediate right
d. Immediate left
b. Third to the left
c. Immediate right
d. Immediate left
76. Who is at the end of the row?
a. E b. B c. Both a and b d. A
77. Who is in the middle?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. None of the above
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. None of the above
78. Read the statement and identify the conclusion which follows.
Anushka: I feel sick. I shouldn’t have eaten the whole burger. Conclusion 1: The burger was of bad quality. Conclusion 2: Eating too much makes me sick. a. I b. II c. I and II both d. Neither I nor II
79. Doomscrolling – compulsively scrolling through content on social media that is depressing or worrying – became one of the Oxford dictionary’s words of the year for 2020 as the COVID- 19 pandemic saw people turn to the internet for information and answers to allay their fears. Which of the following, if true, supports the statement above?
a. People are spending more time on their phones in the pandemic.
b. There are higher cases of mental health issues during the pandemic.
c. People tend to focus on things that confirm their biases.
d. The work routines have impacted people’s sleep cycles during the pandemic
a. People are spending more time on their phones in the pandemic.
b. There are higher cases of mental health issues during the pandemic.
c. People tend to focus on things that confirm their biases.
d. The work routines have impacted people’s sleep cycles during the pandemic
80. With technology becoming smarter, there has been a corresponding increase in cyber fraud, harassments, and threats, so much so that the district has been receiving around 300 to 400 complaints pertaining to cybercrime each month since 2020.
The information above is obviously incomplete. What other information do you need to say for certain if cybercrime is on the rise? a. Data of previous months’ cyber crime b. Data of reported versus unreported cyber crimes c. Data of all technology breaches in the past months d. All the above
Questions 81-82 are based on the information below.
Fast fashion is mass production of cheap, poor quality, disposable clothing. It has an enormous environmental footprint for both its production and disposal. Clothing production requires a considerable amount of energy and resources, while it depends on toxic fabric dyes and other chemicals that contaminate fresh water. Fashion produces a tenth of the world’s carbon emissions. According to Levi Strauss & Co., producing a pair of jeans emits as much carbon as driving a car 80 miles. Statement 1: Buying from local dressmakers has environmental benefits. Statement 2: Fashion industry is one of the biggest revenue churners. Statement 3: Many brands have now come up with sustainable approaches to fast fashion. 81. Which of the statements supports the central idea of the passage? a. 1 b. 1, 2 c. 2, 3 d. 1, 3
82. Which of the following is the most desirable outcome?
a. Moving towards sustainable production of clothing.
b. Encouraging local production of clothing.
c. Encouraging major retail makers to produce clothing sustainably.
d. None of the above.
a. Moving towards sustainable production of clothing.
b. Encouraging local production of clothing.
c. Encouraging major retail makers to produce clothing sustainably.
d. None of the above.
83. The Covid-19 induced lockdown forced a lot of sectors to go digital, and the education sector was not an exception. Exams, lectures, assignments, and grading had to be digitized. In turn, teachers are required to be continually trained in different learning systems and education of all schools and colleges that continued unabated across the world.
Teachers also had to don multiple hats of being tutor, coach, mentor, counselor, instructor, friend and more to play more dynamic role in means of learning not just academic but also the mind-set of learners.
Teachers also had to don multiple hats of being tutor, coach, mentor, counselor, instructor, friend and more to play more dynamic role in means of learning not just academic but also the mind-set of learners.
Identify the statement that best summarizes the conclusion of the statements above. a. Online teaching is more complex than offline teaching. b. There is a need to focus on multidisciplinary approach to learning. c. Covid-19 has contributed to overworked teachers. d. To teach well, teachers must be tech-savvy.
Questions 84 – 85 are based on the information below.
In 2016, moved by the plight of Adivasi prisoners in the tribal state, many of whom were falsely branded as “Naxalites”, Swamy conducted research on them. It was published as a report titled, deprived of rights over natural resources, impoverished Adivasis get prison: a study of undertrials in Jharkhand.
Finding 1: 31 per cent of undertrials and a little over a third of the convicts were tribals. The percentage of tribals in jail was far higher than their proportion of the population. Finding 2: 97 per cent of undertrials interviewed said that allegations that they were linked to Maoists were false.
Finding 3: 96 per cent of them earned less than Rs 5,000 a month.
Finding 3: 96 per cent of them earned less than Rs 5,000 a month.
84. Identify the weakest finding in the report.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 1,2,3
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 1,2,3
85. Which statement supports the conclusion of the passage?
a. The poor strata of society have greater motive to commit crimes.
b. Poor people are less likely to post bail.
c. Poor people are less likely to afford adequate legal representation.
d. Both B and C.
a. The poor strata of society have greater motive to commit crimes.
b. Poor people are less likely to post bail.
c. Poor people are less likely to afford adequate legal representation.
d. Both B and C.
LEGAL REASONING
Questions 86-95
In 2017, the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare introduced the National Health
Policy, which for the first time, envisaged the creation of a digital health ecosystem in the
country. Subsequently, the Prime Minister announced the launch of the National Digital Health Mission (NDHM) to give fruition to the idea of unified digital healthcare.
Policy, which for the first time, envisaged the creation of a digital health ecosystem in the
country. Subsequently, the Prime Minister announced the launch of the National Digital Health Mission (NDHM) to give fruition to the idea of unified digital healthcare.
One of the primary goals of NDHM is the creation of a Unique Health Identifier (UHID) which would facilitate integration of health data across various applications and create a longitudinal Electronic Health Record (EHR) for citizens. Essentially, this UHID is meant to be a repository of all health-related information for each citizen of the country. From its very inception, the Unique Health Identity Scheme was promised to be a voluntary
exercise whereby obtaining the consent of a citizen was mandatory before generating a Health ID for them.
exercise whereby obtaining the consent of a citizen was mandatory before generating a Health ID for them.
Curiously, what has taken effect in practice is that from around April-May 2021, the National Health Authority (NHA), which is the organization responsible for implementation of the NDHM, has been surreptitiously issuing Health IDs to citizens, under the garb of procuring personal information including Aadhaar details for the vaccination drive against COVID-19. Neither prior consent nor intimation that their Aadhaar details will ultimately be used to create a Unique Health ID have been given to the citizens. It is absolutely shocking to see that till date, the average Indian citizen is not even aware that they now possess a 14-digit Health ID, which has been dubiously incorporated in the electronically generated vaccination certificate.
This exercise has also not been uniform for all citizens. Despite the usage of Aadhaar not being mandatory, it appears that Health IDs have only been created for citizens who provided their Aadhaar Card for verification. Others, who furnished their PAN Card or other identity cards have not yet been allotted the UHID. While it may be argued that citizens willfully shared their Aadhaar details, it has to be borne in mind that this consent was for the sole and standalone purpose of verifying their identity at the time of vaccination and not for the creation of a Health ID.
Therefore, in the absence of the necessary knowledge of the purpose for which data is being collected, valid consent could not have been given. Such actions are in direct violation of Section 6(3) of the Aadhaar and other Laws Amendment Act, 2019 which provides that voluntary use of the Aadhaar number by way of authentication means the use of such Aadhaar number only with the informed consent of the Aadhaar number holder.
What is even more baffling is that the NDHM has been implemented in the absence of any legislation that gives legal backing to it or even envisages its implementation. It is a settled position in law that government policies or guidelines which have not been framed under any statute or provision of the Constitution of India, are not considered as statutory in nature, and are instead merely executive instructions/administrative guidelines, compliance whereof cannot be enforced through courts. Thus, non-adherence to such policies is implicitly permissible, which leaves the citizens remediless in case of deviations by the government.
Unfortunately, the current way Health IDs are being created for citizens without furnishing basic information regarding the infrastructure that will be used in setting up this digital ecosystem, is grossly unconstitutional and it is about time that the state comes clean and takes accountability for its actions.
86. Is there any legal implication of making Aadhar voluntary for the registration of UHID?
a. No, it is morally reprehensible and should not be done, but is legally permissible.
b. Yes, under Section 6(3) of the Aadhaar Act.
c. Both (b) and (d)
d. Yes, under the Personal Data Protection Bill.
a. No, it is morally reprehensible and should not be done, but is legally permissible.
b. Yes, under Section 6(3) of the Aadhaar Act.
c. Both (b) and (d)
d. Yes, under the Personal Data Protection Bill.
87. On what grounds can the NDHM be held unconstitutional?
a. Tainted consent.
b. Lack of statutory backing.
c. Violation of right to privacy.
d. All the above.
a. Tainted consent.
b. Lack of statutory backing.
c. Violation of right to privacy.
d. All the above.
88. Assume that the Health Ministry is statutorily required to introduce a National Health
Policy every 5 years, and that the NDHM has been created pursuant to Section 1(4) of the
hypothetical statute, which states that “the Health Ministry shall periodically create policy for the betterment of health of all Indian citizens”. Would this constitute sufficient statutory
backing for the NDHM?
a. No
b. Yes, since the policy has now been framed under Section 1(4) of a statutory enactment.
c. Yes, since all changes within the National Health Policy are covered by the statute
d. Both b and c.
Policy every 5 years, and that the NDHM has been created pursuant to Section 1(4) of the
hypothetical statute, which states that “the Health Ministry shall periodically create policy for the betterment of health of all Indian citizens”. Would this constitute sufficient statutory
backing for the NDHM?
a. No
b. Yes, since the policy has now been framed under Section 1(4) of a statutory enactment.
c. Yes, since all changes within the National Health Policy are covered by the statute
d. Both b and c.
89. What is the author’s issue with the creation of Health IDs?
a. They are merely a cover for governmental data collection and surveillance.
b. They have violated the right to privacy.
c. The vaccine drive is being hampered.
d. All the above.
a. They are merely a cover for governmental data collection and surveillance.
b. They have violated the right to privacy.
c. The vaccine drive is being hampered.
d. All the above.
90. The Government of India releases the National Food Safety Mission, drawing from the FSSAI Act. Now, all establishments will have to link their owner’s Aadhar Cards with the government and ensure that minimum quality food is available. The Aadhar will be used to create a database of performance of all establishments, rewarding and fining them as necessary. Given the author’s reasoning, is this violative of the right to privacy?
a. No
b. No, all the author’s requirements are satisfied.
c. Yes, Aadhar has been made voluntary for the process, and there is no justification for
mandating its use for this process.
d. Yes
a. No
b. No, all the author’s requirements are satisfied.
c. Yes, Aadhar has been made voluntary for the process, and there is no justification for
mandating its use for this process.
d. Yes
91. Is the right to redact a part of the right to privacy?
a. Yes
b. Yes, according to the judgement of K.S. Puttaswamy.
c. Yes, according to the author.
d. All the above.
a. Yes
b. Yes, according to the judgement of K.S. Puttaswamy.
c. Yes, according to the author.
d. All the above.
92. Can hospitals face action for mandatorily collecting Aadhar data without informing customers?
a. Yes, as Section 57 was struck down and they had no legal backing to do the same.
b. No, as hospitals themselves were not aware and this is an unfair burden on them.
c. Either of the above.
d. Yes, as hospitals are data fiduciaries, and they can be held responsible for violations of
the right to privacy.
a. Yes, as Section 57 was struck down and they had no legal backing to do the same.
b. No, as hospitals themselves were not aware and this is an unfair burden on them.
c. Either of the above.
d. Yes, as hospitals are data fiduciaries, and they can be held responsible for violations of
the right to privacy.
93. Which of the following does the author find problematic? a. Opaquely using data from vaccine drives to make a Health ID and not informing people of them. b. Surreptitiously creating a Health ID. c. Not having a sensible data protection system in place. d. All the above.
94. What are some arguments as to why hospitals should not be liable?
a. The hospitals themselves were not aware of the data being used in ways that violated the
right to privacy, and absent such knowledge, cannot be liable.
b. The hospital acted as an intermediary and siphoned off data from consumers and without
their consent facilitated data transfer.
c. The hospital did not sell the data to a third-party actor but instead gave it to the
government, so cannot be liable.
d. Both (a) and (c).
right to privacy, and absent such knowledge, cannot be liable.
b. The hospital acted as an intermediary and siphoned off data from consumers and without
their consent facilitated data transfer.
c. The hospital did not sell the data to a third-party actor but instead gave it to the
government, so cannot be liable.
d. Both (a) and (c).
95. What are some of the author’s issues with the current process?
a. Health IDs were made with tainted consent.
b. The Government does not have a solid privacy framework to act as a guarantee.
c. Private entities were not kept in the loop.
d. All the above.
a. Health IDs were made with tainted consent.
b. The Government does not have a solid privacy framework to act as a guarantee.
c. Private entities were not kept in the loop.
d. All the above.
Questions 96-100
A recent order passed by the Odisha State Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission has raised the question of liability of online marketplaces in cases of defective products or services. The State Commission held Amazon liable in a case where a law student’s order for a laptop placed at a discounted rate of Rs. 190 was cancelled soon after it was confirmed.
The State Commission observed that Amazon was negligent in providing service and that cancelling the said order after confirmation was an unfair trade practice. Accordingly, Amazon was directed to pay Rs. 40,000 as compensation (Rs. 30,000 for mental agony and harassment along with Rs. 10,000 towards punitive damages) and Rs. 5,000 as costs.
In this matter, though no one appeared on behalf of Amazon in the final hearing, the e-commerce giant had previously filed written arguments stating that the agreement was between a third-party seller (who operated through Amazon’s website) and the consumer, and therefore, there was no privity of contract and no question of negligence and/or deficiency.
However, the State Commission rejected the said argument and observed that when Amazon, which is a reputed online shopping website, made an offer and the complainant placed the order accepting that offer, the agreement stood completed between the parties. The State Commission further clarified that it would have been a different case had there been a cancellation before the order was confirmed. However, when Amazon allowed the third-party seller to operate on its platform, its responsibility cannot be lost sight of, the order stated.
While the above decision may be welcomed by consumers, it creates far-reaching consequences for online marketplaces like Amazon, Flipkart etc. The law is not crystal clear in respect of the liability of these companies, as conflicting orders have been passed by different State Commissions. In the absence of clear provisions, and with increasing adverse rulings against Amazon and other similar marketplaces, consumers would be encouraged to file complaints against such online marketplaces.
This may not only increase the prices consumers pay for the products (to balance the litigation burden) but may also lead to fewer products being available at such platforms. Additionally, in a country like India, many small-scale businesses which host their products on online marketplaces may not even be able to bear the burden of such increased consumer litigation if the facilitator is entirely removed from the equation. The only thing one can do is to wait and watch as to how this controversy is settled either by the legislature or by the judiciary.
96. Amazon appeals the ruling that held it responsible. What are some persuasive arguments it could make?
a. Amazon is a large marketplace, and it cannot be held responsible for all the
faulty products on the platform, as long as they carried out reasonable due diligence.
b. The contract is between the customer and the product seller, and Amazon is explicitly
only a facilitator.
c. The user had agreed to the Terms and Conditions, and these Terms clearly state that
Amazon did not bear any responsibility.
d. All the above.
a. Amazon is a large marketplace, and it cannot be held responsible for all the
faulty products on the platform, as long as they carried out reasonable due diligence.
b. The contract is between the customer and the product seller, and Amazon is explicitly
only a facilitator.
c. The user had agreed to the Terms and Conditions, and these Terms clearly state that
Amazon did not bear any responsibility.
d. All the above.
97. Why should Amazon be held responsible for faulty products it does not sell?
a. Amazon is large in size and extremely wealthy and makes profits off such products.
b. Amazon has a large amount of trust from customers, and since it guarantees the equality
of products on its platform, it can be held responsible when this does not occur.
c. Amazon profits off such products.
d. All the above.
a. Amazon is large in size and extremely wealthy and makes profits off such products.
b. Amazon has a large amount of trust from customers, and since it guarantees the equality
of products on its platform, it can be held responsible when this does not occur.
c. Amazon profits off such products.
d. All the above.
98. Alimama is an online marketplace that sells luxury items and cosmetics. It partners with Olivegood Inc., one of the largest market players in the perfume market. This deal is widely publicised and Olivegood’s products are exclusively sold on Alimama at a discount. Millions of people buy these products, and the partnership is a great commercial success.
However, some customers report itching and skin damage after applying the perfume, and upon investigation it is discovered that some batches of Olivegood’s products are faulty. Customers who were damaged by this sue both Alimama and Olivegood. Is Alimama liable?
a. No, as Alimama did not create the product themselves, but merely served as a facilitator.
b. Yes, as Alimama widely advertised the product, and put their personal brand and faith
behind these products.
c. No, as the terms and conditions clearly stated that the customer should directly contact
Olivegood and no responsibility lies on Alimama.
d. Both a and c.
a. No, as Alimama did not create the product themselves, but merely served as a facilitator.
b. Yes, as Alimama widely advertised the product, and put their personal brand and faith
behind these products.
c. No, as the terms and conditions clearly stated that the customer should directly contact
Olivegood and no responsibility lies on Alimama.
d. Both a and c.
99. What could be some unintended consequences of raising prices?
a. Higher prices for consumers.
b. Smaller businesses which cannot afford expensive checks do not get to the platform
online and lose customers.
c. Lesser product choice.
d. All the above.
a. Higher prices for consumers.
b. Smaller businesses which cannot afford expensive checks do not get to the platform
online and lose customers.
c. Lesser product choice.
d. All the above.
100. Flipcar is an online platform where used cars are sold. Flipcar explicitly states that it merely acts as a marketplace, and other than minimum document checks, does not guarantee the quality or legitimacy of services on its platform. Bhanu wants to buy a new car because his old one is over 10 years old and does not function well. He finds a reputed seller on the platform, an authorised agent of Honda, who sells him a brand-new Honda at a reasonable price.
However, Bhanu finds out a few days later that the seller lied about their identity and that the car is a faulty car with a paint job done. He sues Flipcar, who take the defence of their publicised stance. Is Flipcar liable? a. Yes b. No c. No, as Flipcar does not take responsibility for any of the products sold on its platform, and the same information has been made known to every customer or user of the platform. They cannot be liable. d. Both b and c
QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES
Qs. (101-107): Analyse the data given below and answer the questions that follow.
Passage: Company XYZ has a total of 720 employees. 12.5% of these are under the Human Resources (HR) department. One-ninths of the remaining work in the warehouse. One-sixths of the total number of employees are employed under the Sales department. One-elevenths of the remaining employees are in the accounting department. The purchase team comprises 100 employees. The remaining employees are divided among the Advertising, Product Designing, and Public Relations (PR) departments in the ratio 17:24:19, respectively.
101. Each warehouse worker can move 25 boxes/hour from the production facility to the warehouse. Each of such workers is required to work for 8 hours each day. But on a particular day, after working for 4 hours, 50% of the workers take a leave. Now, in the remaining four hours, how many boxes will each of the remaining workers have to move per hour, if they want to move the same total number of boxes that would have been moved had the workers not taken a leave?
a. 40 boxes/hour
b. 50 boxes/hour
c. 75 boxes/hour
d. 60 boxes/hour
101. Each warehouse worker can move 25 boxes/hour from the production facility to the warehouse. Each of such workers is required to work for 8 hours each day. But on a particular day, after working for 4 hours, 50% of the workers take a leave. Now, in the remaining four hours, how many boxes will each of the remaining workers have to move per hour, if they want to move the same total number of boxes that would have been moved had the workers not taken a leave?
a. 40 boxes/hour
b. 50 boxes/hour
c. 75 boxes/hour
d. 60 boxes/hour
102. Each of the employees in the sales department is given a target of achieving a total sale of Rs. 10 lacs per week. If the employees achieve that target, or cross it, they are given a fixed incentive of Rs. 13,000 for that week. If, in a particular week, 45% of the employees in the Sales department can achieve the target, then what is the total incentive that was paid by the company to such employees in that week?
a. Rs. 7,02,000
b. Rs. 7,20,000
c. Rs. 7,00,200
d. Rs. 7,22,000
a. Rs. 7,02,000
b. Rs. 7,20,000
c. Rs. 7,00,200
d. Rs. 7,22,000
103. If the salary of each employee of the PR department is Rs. 90,000 per month, then what is the yearly expenditure that the company incurs for the payment of salaries of all employees of that department?
a. Rs. 85,50,000
b. Rs. 95,50,000
c. Rs. 10,26,00,000
d. Rs. 10,36,00,000
a. Rs. 85,50,000
b. Rs. 95,50,000
c. Rs. 10,26,00,000
d. Rs. 10,36,00,000
104. What is the ratio of the number of employees in the accounting department to the number of employees in the Advertising department, respectively?
a. 17:8
b. 8:17
c. 7:18
d. 18:7
105. Due to the lockdown imposed by the government to curtail the spread of Covid-19, the revenue of the company falls. To reduce losses, the company undertakes cost-cutting measures. It decides to let go 1/3 rd of those employed in the HR and Product Designing departments each. It also decided to reduce the salaries of the remaining workers in these two departments by 20%. If the salaries of each employee in these two departments was Rs. 1,25,000/month, then what were the total savings made by the company in one month?
a. Rs. 1,25,20,000
b. Rs. 1,35,50,000
c. Rs. 1,22,20,000
d. Rs. 1,22,50,000
a. 17:8
b. 8:17
c. 7:18
d. 18:7
105. Due to the lockdown imposed by the government to curtail the spread of Covid-19, the revenue of the company falls. To reduce losses, the company undertakes cost-cutting measures. It decides to let go 1/3 rd of those employed in the HR and Product Designing departments each. It also decided to reduce the salaries of the remaining workers in these two departments by 20%. If the salaries of each employee in these two departments was Rs. 1,25,000/month, then what were the total savings made by the company in one month?
a. Rs. 1,25,20,000
b. Rs. 1,35,50,000
c. Rs. 1,22,20,000
d. Rs. 1,22,50,000
Qs. (106-107): Analyse the data given below and answer the questions that follow.
Passage: Two cars, A and B, start from the opposite ends of a road. Speed of Car A is 72 km/h while that of Car B is 96 km/hr. The length of the road is 864 kms.
140.
140.
106.If Car B starts from its end 2 hours before Car A, then at what distance from the point at which Car B starts will the two cars meet?
a. 288 kms
b. 484 kms
c. 576 kms
d. 726 kms
a. 288 kms
b. 484 kms
c. 576 kms
d. 726 kms
107. Parallel to and beside the road, there is a stream of water of the same length. A motorboat starts from 480 kms from the end which Car A starts at. The speed of the motorboat in still water is 45 km/hr. The speed of the stream is 3 km/hr. The motorboat is going with the flow of the river (downstream). If both cars and the boat start at the same time, then what is the distance between the two cars when the boat reaches the end at which Car B started?
a. 540 kms
b. 504 kms
c. 640 kms
d. 480 kms
a. 540 kms
b. 504 kms
c. 640 kms
d. 480 kms
108. Ladybug Textiles Ltd, a garment manufacturing company, releases its effluents through a circular pipe whose internal diameter is 2 cm, at the rate of 6 m/s into a cylindrical tank to be treated. The radius of the base of the tank is 60 cm. By how much will the level of the fluids in the tank rise in 30 minutes?
a. 2 m
b. 3 m
c. 4 m
d. 5 m
a. 2 m
b. 3 m
c. 4 m
d. 5 m
109. The sum of Three consecutive odd numbers and three consecutives even numbers together is 231. Also, the smallest, odd number is 11 less than the smallest even number. What is the sum of the largest, odd number and the largest even number?
a. 74
a. 74
b. 82
c. Cannot be determined
d. None of these
c. Cannot be determined
d. None of these
110. Selena, a cryptocurrency expert, had a certain amount of money she had kept aside for investing. Based on her projections and risk tolerance, she calculated that an investment in Ethereum would yield 12% p.a simple interest while investment in Ripple would yield 10% p.a compound interest. She invested 2/3 of her money in Ethereum for 6 years and the rest of her money in Ripple for 2 years. If the total return on investment obtained from both her cryptocurrency investments together is $ 2750, what was the total amount invested by her in Ethereum and Ripple together?
a. $ 4500
b. $ 4200
c. $ 4050
d. $ 5000
a. $ 4500
b. $ 4200
c. $ 4050
d. $ 5000
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Ruchika Mohapatra
Contributing author
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