Important MCQs on Constitutional Law- PART IV
1. Which case held that the right to freedom of speech and expression includes the right to information?
A. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
B. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
C. State of U.P. v. Raj Narain
D. I.R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu
B. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
C. State of U.P. v. Raj Narain
D. I.R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: In Raj Narain (1975), the SC held that the right to know is part of Article 19(1)(a). This laid the foundation for the RTI Act, 2005.
Explanation: In Raj Narain (1975), the SC held that the right to know is part of Article 19(1)(a). This laid the foundation for the RTI Act, 2005.
2. Which of the following statements about Article 32 is correct?
A. It is a fundamental right available only against State legislations.
B. It can be suspended even during normal circumstances.
C. It empowers the Supreme Court to issue writs for enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
D. It can be invoked for violation of Directive Principles.
B. It can be suspended even during normal circumstances.
C. It empowers the Supreme Court to issue writs for enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
D. It can be invoked for violation of Directive Principles.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Article 32 is a guaranteed remedy for enforcement of Fundamental Rights. It cannot be suspended (except under Art. 359 emergency), and does not apply to DPSPs.
Explanation: Article 32 is a guaranteed remedy for enforcement of Fundamental Rights. It cannot be suspended (except under Art. 359 emergency), and does not apply to DPSPs.
3. The principle of collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers to the Legislative Assembly of the State is laid down in:
A. Article 74
B. Article 75(3)
C. Article 163
D. Article 164(2)
B. Article 75(3)
C. Article 163
D. Article 164(2)
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Article 164(2) provides that the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the State Legislative Assembly.
Explanation: Article 164(2) provides that the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the State Legislative Assembly.
4. Which case recognized judicial independence as part of the basic structure?
A. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
B. Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain
C. Union of India v. Sankalchand Sheth
D. S.P. Gupta v. Union of India
B. Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain
C. Union of India v. Sankalchand Sheth
D. S.P. Gupta v. Union of India
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Kesavananda Bharati (1973) recognized judicial independence as part of the basic structure.
Explanation: Kesavananda Bharati (1973) recognized judicial independence as part of the basic structure.
5. Which of the following provisions deals with the anti-defection law?
A. Article 101
B. Article 102
C. Article 103
D. Tenth Schedule
B. Article 102
C. Article 103
D. Tenth Schedule
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The Tenth Schedule (added by 52nd Amendment, 1985) lays down the anti-defection law. Articles 101–103 relate to membership and disqualification.
Explanation: The Tenth Schedule (added by 52nd Amendment, 1985) lays down the anti-defection law. Articles 101–103 relate to membership and disqualification.
6. Which of the following writs is issued to produce a person before a court to test the legality of detention?
A. Mandamus
B. Habeas Corpus
C. Certiorari
D. Quo Warranto
B. Habeas Corpus
C. Certiorari
D. Quo Warranto
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Habeas Corpus literally means “to produce the body”. It safeguards personal liberty against unlawful detention.
Explanation: Habeas Corpus literally means “to produce the body”. It safeguards personal liberty against unlawful detention.
7. The 44th Constitutional Amendment (1978) was significant because it:
A. Restored primacy of Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights
B. Made right to property a legal right instead of a Fundamental Right
C. Introduced Fundamental Duties
D. Gave primacy to Parliament over Judiciary
B. Made right to property a legal right instead of a Fundamental Right
C. Introduced Fundamental Duties
D. Gave primacy to Parliament over Judiciary
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The 44th Amendment removed right to property from Fundamental Rights (Art. 19, 31), making it a constitutional/legal right under Article 300A.
Explanation: The 44th Amendment removed right to property from Fundamental Rights (Art. 19, 31), making it a constitutional/legal right under Article 300A.
8. Which Article empowers Parliament to amend the Second Schedule relating to emoluments of constitutional authorities by simple majority?
A. Article 110
B. Article 368
C. Article 221
D. Article 125
B. Article 368
C. Article 221
D. Article 125
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Salaries and allowances in the Second Schedule can be amended by simple majority of Parliament under Article 368 proviso.
Explanation: Salaries and allowances in the Second Schedule can be amended by simple majority of Parliament under Article 368 proviso.
9. Which case clarified that reservation in promotions is not a fundamental right?
A. Indra Sawhney v. Union of India
B. M. Nagaraj v. Union of India
C. Jarnail Singh v. Lachhmi Narain Gupta
D. State of Kerala v. N.M. Thomas
B. M. Nagaraj v. Union of India
C. Jarnail Singh v. Lachhmi Narain Gupta
D. State of Kerala v. N.M. Thomas
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: M. Nagaraj upheld amendments providing reservation in promotions but clarified it is not a fundamental right.
Explanation: M. Nagaraj upheld amendments providing reservation in promotions but clarified it is not a fundamental right.
10. Who has the final authority to decide on the disqualification of a Member of Parliament on grounds of defection?
A. Election Commission
B. President
C. Speaker/Chairman of the House
D. Supreme Court
B. President
C. Speaker/Chairman of the House
D. Supreme Court
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Under the Tenth Schedule, the Speaker/Chairman decides, subject to judicial review by the courts.
Explanation: Under the Tenth Schedule, the Speaker/Chairman decides, subject to judicial review by the courts.
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Ruchika Mohapatra
Contributing author
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