CLAT PG 2026 will be conducted in December 2025. Revise for the exam by attempting these MCQs for CLAT PG 2026 today!
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS FOR CLAT PG
1. Which of the following articles of the Indian Constitution deals with the right to equality?
a) Article 12
b) Article 14
c) Article 16
d) Article 19
b) Article 14
c) Article 16
d) Article 19
Answer: b) Article 14
Explanation: Article 14 guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of the laws within the territory of India, forming the foundation of the rule of law.
Explanation: Article 14 guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of the laws within the territory of India, forming the foundation of the rule of law.
2. Who is the final interpreter of the Indian Constitution?
a) The President of India
b) The Parliament
c) The Supreme Court of India
d) The Attorney General of India
b) The Parliament
c) The Supreme Court of India
d) The Attorney General of India
Answer: c) The Supreme Court of India
Explanation: The Supreme Court is the guardian of the Constitution and has the power of judicial review to interpret its provisions.
Explanation: The Supreme Court is the guardian of the Constitution and has the power of judicial review to interpret its provisions.
3. Which part of the Indian Constitution contains the Directive Principles of State Policy?
a) Part III
b) Part IV
c) Part V
d) Part VI
b) Part IV
c) Part V
d) Part VI
Answer: b) Part IV
Explanation: Part IV of the Constitution contains the Directive Principles, which are guidelines for the government to establish a just society.
Explanation: Part IV of the Constitution contains the Directive Principles, which are guidelines for the government to establish a just society.
4. The concept of “Basic Structure” of the Constitution was propounded in which case?
a) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
b) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
c) Minerva Mills v. Union of India
d) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
b) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
c) Minerva Mills v. Union of India
d) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
Answer: a) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
Explanation: The doctrine of basic structure limits the amending power of the Parliament to ensure the fundamental identity of the Constitution remains intact.
Explanation: The doctrine of basic structure limits the amending power of the Parliament to ensure the fundamental identity of the Constitution remains intact.
5. What is the maximum duration for which President’s Rule can be imposed in a state?
a) 6 months
b) 1 year
c) 2 years
d) 3 years
b) 1 year
c) 2 years
d) 3 years
Answer: d) 3 years
Explanation: President’s Rule can be extended beyond one year only under specific conditions, as provided in Article 356.
Explanation: President’s Rule can be extended beyond one year only under specific conditions, as provided in Article 356.
6. Which of the following is not an essential element of negligence?
a) Duty of care
b) Breach of duty
c) Damage
d) Intention to harm
b) Breach of duty
c) Damage
d) Intention to harm
Answer: d) Intention to harm
Explanation: Negligence does not require intention but involves a breach of duty resulting in damage.
Explanation: Negligence does not require intention but involves a breach of duty resulting in damage.
7. The rule in Rylands v. Fletcher applies to which of the following?
a) Negligence
b) Strict liability
c) Absolute liability
d) Contributory negligence
b) Strict liability
c) Absolute liability
d) Contributory negligence
Answer: b) Strict liability
Explanation: The rule states that a person who keeps dangerous things on their land is liable for any damage caused if those things escape.
Explanation: The rule states that a person who keeps dangerous things on their land is liable for any damage caused if those things escape.
8. In a tort of defamation, which one is considered libel?
a) Oral statements
b) Written statements
c) Gestures
d) None of the above
b) Written statements
c) Gestures
d) None of the above
Answer: b) Written statements
Explanation: Libel is defamation in permanent form, such as written or printed words.
Explanation: Libel is defamation in permanent form, such as written or printed words.
9. Which defense is not applicable in strict liability cases?
a) Act of God
b) Consent of the plaintiff
c) Fault of the defendant
d) Act of a third party
b) Consent of the plaintiff
c) Fault of the defendant
d) Act of a third party
Answer: c) Fault of the defendant
Explanation: Strict liability does not depend on the defendant’s fault, but certain exceptions like act of God or consent apply.
Explanation: Strict liability does not depend on the defendant’s fault, but certain exceptions like act of God or consent apply.
10. Who can file a suit in case of public nuisance?
a) Any member of the public
b) Only the affected individual
c) A public authority
d) Both b and c
b) Only the affected individual
c) A public authority
d) Both b and c
Answer: d) Both b and c
Explanation: Public nuisance typically requires the involvement of public authorities unless a person suffers special damage.
Explanation: Public nuisance typically requires the involvement of public authorities unless a person suffers special damage.
11. The Limitation Act, 1963 applies to:
a) Criminal cases
b) Civil cases
c) Both civil and criminal cases
d) None of the above
b) Civil cases
c) Both civil and criminal cases
d) None of the above
Answer: b) Civil cases
Explanation: The Limitation Act governs time limits for civil proceedings but does not typically apply to criminal cases.
Explanation: The Limitation Act governs time limits for civil proceedings but does not typically apply to criminal cases.
12. What is the limitation period for filing a suit for recovery of possession of immovable property?
a) 6 months
b) 1 year
c) 3 years
d) 12 years
b) 1 year
c) 3 years
d) 12 years
Answer: d) 12 years
Explanation: Under the Limitation Act, suits for possession of immovable property must be filed within 12 years from the accrual of the right.
Explanation: Under the Limitation Act, suits for possession of immovable property must be filed within 12 years from the accrual of the right.
13. Which section of the Limitation Act provides for the exclusion of time during which a party was pursuing a remedy in good faith?
a) Section 5
b) Section 12
c) Section 14
d) Section 18
b) Section 12
c) Section 14
d) Section 18
Answer: c) Section 14
Explanation: Section 14 allows the exclusion of time spent in bona fide legal proceedings in a wrong forum.
Explanation: Section 14 allows the exclusion of time spent in bona fide legal proceedings in a wrong forum.
14. The doctrine of “sufficient cause” for condoning delay is provided under:
a) Section 5
b) Section 8
c) Section 10
d) Section 20
b) Section 8
c) Section 10
d) Section 20
Answer: a) Section 5
Explanation: Section 5 permits the extension of the prescribed period for certain cases if sufficient cause is shown.
Explanation: Section 5 permits the extension of the prescribed period for certain cases if sufficient cause is shown.
15. Which one of the following does not extend the period of limitation?
a) Acknowledgment of debt
b) Part payment
c) Minor’s disability
d) Lack of knowledge of law
b) Part payment
c) Minor’s disability
d) Lack of knowledge of law
Answer: d) Lack of knowledge of law
Explanation: Ignorance of the law is not an excuse under the Limitation Act.
Explanation: Ignorance of the law is not an excuse under the Limitation Act.
Subscribe for updates
Join 10,000+ subscribers.
RU
Ruchika Mohapatra
Contributing author
Have a doubt about this?Ask Doubts
