Prepare for AILET 2025 with Multiple Choice Questions for AILET PG.
QUESTIONS
1. Which of the following principles is applied to decide whether a law is retrospective or not?
a) Lex loci
b) Lex fori
c) Ex post facto
d) Jus cogens
b) Lex fori
c) Ex post facto
d) Jus cogens
2. Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals with the abolition of untouchability?
a) Article 14
b) Article 15
c) Article 16
d) Article 17
b) Article 15
c) Article 16
d) Article 17
3. The doctrine of ‘Basic Structure’ was propounded in which landmark case?
a) A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
b) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
c) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
d) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
b) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
c) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
d) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
4. Under which section of the Indian Penal Code is ‘culpable homicide not amounting to murder’ defined?
a) Section 299
b) Section 300
c) Section 302
d) Section 304
b) Section 300
c) Section 302
d) Section 304
5. The concept of ‘Rule of Law’ is based on which of the following?
a) Separation of powers
b) Judicial review
c) Supremacy of law
d) Natural justice
b) Judicial review
c) Supremacy of law
d) Natural justice
6. Which of the following is not a fundamental duty under the Indian Constitution?
a) To respect the National Flag
b) To protect and improve the natural environment
c) To vote in elections
d) To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India
b) To protect and improve the natural environment
c) To vote in elections
d) To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India
7. Which of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act deals with ‘Presumption as to documents 30 years old’?
a) Section 60
b) Section 90
c) Section 114
d) Section 123
b) Section 90
c) Section 114
d) Section 123
8. In the Indian Contract Act, 1872, which section defines ‘consideration’?
a) Section 2(a)
b) Section 2(d)
c) Section 2(h)
d) Section 2(j)
b) Section 2(d)
c) Section 2(h)
d) Section 2(j)
9. The writ of ‘Habeas Corpus’ is issued to:
a) Prevent illegal detention
b) Quash an unconstitutional law
c) Prevent misuse of public office
d) Secure compliance with a public duty
b) Quash an unconstitutional law
c) Prevent misuse of public office
d) Secure compliance with a public duty
10. Which section of the Indian Penal Code deals with ‘defamation’?
a) Section 499
b) Section 503
c) Section 507
d) Section 509
b) Section 503
c) Section 507
d) Section 509
11. Which of the following doctrines is related to the principle that a party cannot deny a fact that has already been settled?
a) Doctrine of Res Judicata
b) Doctrine of Estoppel
c) Doctrine of Waiver
d) Doctrine of Laches
b) Doctrine of Estoppel
c) Doctrine of Waiver
d) Doctrine of Laches
12. Under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, which section deals with the ‘Doctrine of Part Performance’?
a) Section 41
b) Section 53A
c) Section 58
d) Section 106
b) Section 53A
c) Section 58
d) Section 106
13. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution deals with ‘Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth’?
a) Article 14
b) Article 15
c) Article 16
d) Article 17
b) Article 15
c) Article 16
d) Article 17
14. Which of the following cases is related to the ‘Doctrine of Basic Structure’?
a) Minerva Mills Ltd. v. Union of India
b) A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
c) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
d) S.R. Bommai v. Union of India
b) A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
c) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
d) S.R. Bommai v. Union of India
15. Which of the following sections of the Indian Penal Code deals with the punishment for cheating?
a) Section 417
b) Section 420
c) Section 403
d) Section 405
b) Section 420
c) Section 403
d) Section 405
16. In the context of International Law, the principle of ‘Non-Refoulement’ is most closely associated with which of the following?
a) Extradition treaties
b) Refugee law
c) Diplomatic immunity
d) Maritime law
b) Refugee law
c) Diplomatic immunity
d) Maritime law
17. The ‘Doctrine of Eclipse’ is associated with which part of the Indian Constitution?
a) Fundamental Rights
b) Directive Principles of State Policy
c) Preamble
d) Fundamental Duties
b) Directive Principles of State Policy
c) Preamble
d) Fundamental Duties
18. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution can the President proclaim a National Emergency?
a) Article 352
b) Article 356
c) Article 360
d) Article 368
b) Article 356
c) Article 360
d) Article 368
19. The concept of ‘Judicial Review’ in the Indian Constitution is borrowed from which country?
a) United Kingdom
b) Canada
c) Australia
d) United States of America
b) Canada
c) Australia
d) United States of America
20. Which of the following sections of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, defines ‘immovable property’?
a) Section 3
b) Section 5
c) Section 10
d) Section 25
b) Section 5
c) Section 10
d) Section 25
21. Under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, which section deals with ‘admissibility of electronic records’?
a) Section 45A
b) Section 65A
c) Section 73A
d) Section 85A
b) Section 65A
c) Section 73A
d) Section 85A
22. The principle of ‘Audi Alteram Partem’ is a part of which of the following doctrines?
a) Doctrine of Natural Justice
b) Doctrine of Stare Decisis
c) Doctrine of Pith and Substance
d) Doctrine of Repugnancy
b) Doctrine of Stare Decisis
c) Doctrine of Pith and Substance
d) Doctrine of Repugnancy
23. Under the Right to Information Act, 2005, within how many days should the Public Information Officer (PIO) provide the information requested by an applicant?
a) 15 days
b) 30 days
c) 45 days
d) 60 days
b) 30 days
c) 45 days
d) 60 days
24. Which section of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, deals with the ‘Restitution of Conjugal Rights’?
a) Section 9
b) Section 10
c) Section 12
d) Section 13
b) Section 10
c) Section 12
d) Section 13
25. Which section of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, defines ‘Free Consent’?
a) Section 10
b) Section 13
c) Section 14
d) Section 15
b) Section 13
c) Section 14
d) Section 15
26. The doctrine of ‘Pith and Substance’ is used to resolve conflicts between:
a) Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy
b) Two different laws within the same state
c) Union and State laws on subjects in the Concurrent List
d) Executive and Judiciary
b) Two different laws within the same state
c) Union and State laws on subjects in the Concurrent List
d) Executive and Judiciary
27. Which section of the Indian Penal Code deals with ‘Criminal Conspiracy’?
a) Section 120A
b) Section 34
c) Section 149
d) Section 302
b) Section 34
c) Section 149
d) Section 302
28. Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals with the amendment of the Constitution?
a) Article 352
b) Article 356
c) Article 368
d) Article 370
b) Article 356
c) Article 368
d) Article 370
29. The ‘Doctrine of Severability’ relates to:
a) The invalidation of an entire statute if any part of it is unconstitutional
b) The separation of powers among different branches of government
c) The ability to strike down only the unconstitutional part of a statute
d) The principle that laws must be clear and not vague
b) The separation of powers among different branches of government
c) The ability to strike down only the unconstitutional part of a statute
d) The principle that laws must be clear and not vague
30. Which section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, provides for the admissibility of dying declarations?
a) Section 32
b) Section 45
c) Section 65
d) Section 73
b) Section 45
c) Section 65
d) Section 73
ANSWERS
- C
- D
- C
- A
- C
- C
- B
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Ruchika Mohapatra
Contributing author
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