Practice 100 Questions on Environmental Law for CLAT PG

1. How much of the hydrosphere covers the surface of the earth?
a. 89%
b. 70%
c. 21%
d. 71%

2. The atmosphere is divided into how many zones?
a. 4
b. 3
c. 5
d. 6

3. Which of the following is the concept of the human environment?
a. Concept of determinism
b. Concept of possibilism
c. Concept of neo determinism
d. All of the Above

4. Which of the following concepts of the human environment is based on the notion that the physical environment has a great control on human beings?
a. Concept of determinism
b. Concept of possibilism
c. Concept of neo determinism
d. All of the Above

5. Which of the following concepts of the human environment is a reaction to environment determinism?
a. Concept of determinism
b. Concept of possibilism
c. Concept of neo determinism
d. All of the Above

6. Which of the following concepts of the human environment was introduced by Griffith Taylor in the 1920’s?
a. Concept of determinism
b. Concept of possibilism
c. Concept of neo determinism
d. All of the Above

7. Which of the following is a primary air pollutant?
a. Ozone
b. Ash
c. Carbon Dioxide
d. Formaldehyde

8. Which of the following is a secondary air pollutant?
a. Formaldehyde
b. Carbon dioxide
c. Methane
d. Sulphur dioxide

9. Which of the following pollutants is included by the NAAQS (National Ambient Air Quality Standards)?
a. Nickel
b. Ammonia
c. Lead
d. All of the Above

10. What is the colour code for the remark ‘moderate’ as per India’s new air quality index?
a. Orange
b. Dark Red
c. Yellow
d. Red

11. Which of the following is a type of water pollution?
a. Marine Pollution
b. Thermal Water pollution
c. All of the Above
d. None of the Above

12. What is the effect of salinity as a groundwater pollutant on the health of humans?
a. Vomiting
b. Hypertension
c. Cancer
d. Anaemia

13. In which state arsenic is found in large quantities as a ground water pollutant?
a. Punjab
b. Maharashtra
c. West Bengal
d. Odisha

14. What is the amount of decibel accepted during day time in residential areas?
a. 45db
b. 55db
c. 65db
d. 77db

15. What is the amount of decibel accepted during night time in industrial areas?
a. 45db
b. 55db
c. 70db
d. 77db

16. Which of the following are the causes of soil pollution?
a. Reduction in soil fertility
b. Creation of toxic dust
c. Flora and fauna imbalance
d. All of the above

17. Which of the following is a popular technique to treat soil pollution?
a. Rhizofiltration
b. Mycoremediation
c. Phytotransformation
d. All of the Above

18. When was the soil health card scheme launched by the Government of India?
a. February 2015
b. March 2015
c. April 2015
d. January 2015

19. What is the effect of alpha particle radiation on the human body?
a. Cause damage to lungs and bones
b. Cause damage to eyes and skin
c. Cause damage to cell structure
d. Cause damage to body tissues

20. What is the effect of gamma particle radiation on the human body?
a. Cause damage to lungs and bones
b. Cause damage to eyes and skin
c. Cause damage to cell structure
d. Cause damage to body tissues

21. What is the full form of ‘E- Waste’?
a. Electric waste
b. Electronic waste
c. Waste Electrical and Electronic Equipment waste
d. None of the Above

22. What is the impact of lead as E-waste on the human body?
a. Damages the functioning of brain
b. Damages kidney
c. Damages the skin
d. Damages the circulation of blood and functioning of nervous system

23. The first E-waste control was made under which convention?
a. Kyoto Protocol
b. Paris Agreement
c. Basel Convention
d. Stockholm Convention

24. Which of the following is not a source of solid waste?
a. Urban waste
b. Residential waste
c. Rural waste
d. Nuclear waste

25. In which year the United Nations Environment Programme was established?
a. 1972
b. 1971
c. 1999
d. 1982

26. Where is the United Nations Environment Programme based?
a. Paris
b. London
c. Nairobi
d. New York

27. What is the other name for ‘Transboundary Environment Home Rule’?
a. No harm rule
b. Precautionary Principle
c. Polluter Pay Principle
d. None of the Above

28. Which principle of Stockholm Declaration is reiterated in principle 2 of Rio Declaration?
a. Principle 19
b. Principle 25
c. Principle 22
d. Principle 21

29. Where was the Rio Declaration produced?
a. United Nations Development Programme
b. United Nations Conference on Environment and Development
c. Stockholm Declaration
d. Basel Convention

30. The Rio Declaration consists of how many principles?
a. 25 principles
b. 27 principles
c. 23 principles
d. 25 principles

31. When was the Vienna Convention for the protection of the ozone layer adopted?
a. 21st March, 1985
b. 22nd March, 1985
c. 23rd March, 1986
d. 23rd March, 1985

32. When did India accept the Montreal Protocol on Substances that deplete ozone layer, 1987?
a. In September 1992 after its London Amendment
b. In October 1992
c. In March 1999
d. In August 1987

33. On which syndrome is the Basel Convention on Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and their Disposal, 1989 based?
a. Protection of Earth Syndrome
b. Waste Management Syndrome
c. Not in my backyard Syndrome
d. None of the Above

34. Which of the following is not an objective of Convention on Biological Diversity, 1992?
a. Conservation of Biological Diversity
b. Sustainable use of Biological Diversity
c. Fair and Equitable share of resources
d. None of the Above

35. How many countries have ratified the Convention on Biological Diversity, 1992?
a. 160
b. 170
c. 190
d. 180

36. What is the aim of the Cartagena Protocol?
a. To protect the biotechnology resources
b. To ensure the safe handling, transport and use of living modified organisms
c. To protect biological diversity
d. To human environment

37. The Kyoto Protocol is the extension of which convention?
a. Paris Agreement
b. Basel Convention
c. United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change
d. Montevideo Convention

38. Which convention was recommended in the UN Conference on Environment and Development in 1992 to combat desertification?
a. Cartagena Protocol
b. Kyoto Protocol
c. Rio Declaration
d. UN Convention to Combat Desertification

39. Where was the International Union for Conservation of Nature established in 1948?
a. USA
b. UK
c. France
d. South Africa

40. Where is the headquarters of the International Union for Conservation of Nature situated?
a. Gland, Switzerland
b. Paris, France
c. New York, USA
d. New Delhi, India

41. What is the other name for the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development?
a. Earth Summit, 1992
b. Rio Summit, 1992
c. All of the Above
d. None of the Above

42. Who oversees the implementation of Agenda 21?
a. Rio Declaration
b. UNEP
c. UNFCCC
d. Commission of Sustainable Development

43. In which year did the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) come into force?
a. 1990
b. 1992
c. 1991
d. 1994

44. In which year did the Berlin Conference, also known as the First UNFCCC Conference, take place?
a. 1998
b. 1997
c. 1996
d. 1995

45. Which of the following mechanisms were included in the Kyoto Protocol, 1997?
a. Emission Trading
b. Clean Development Mechanism
c. Joint Implementation
d. All of the Above

46. In which year did India ratify the Kyoto Protocol?
a. 2002
b. 2003
c. 2005
d. 2008

47. What was the outcome of the UNFCCC conference held at Marrakesh in 2001?
a. Marrakesh Accords came into existence
b. US was the observer in this conference
c. All of the Above
d. None of the Above

48. Which of the following is considered as an extension of the Kyoto Protocol beyond 2012?
a. Montreal Conference of UNFCCC, 2005
b. Bonn Conference of UNFCCC, 2001
c. Marrakesh Conference of UNFCCC, 2001
d. Copenhagen Conference of UNFCCC, 2009

49. Under which mechanism can countries buy greenhouse gas reduction units?
a. Emission Trading
b. Clean Development Mechanism
c. Joint Implementation
d. None of the Above

50. Which agreement is based on the Green Fund?
a. Cancun Conference of UNFCCC, 2010
b. Bonn Conference of UNFCCC, 2001
c. Marrakesh Conference of UNFCCC, 2001
d. Copenhagen Conference of UNFCCC, 2009

51. The Green Climate Fund is based on the framework of which convention?
a. Paris Agreement
b. United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change
c. Kyoto Protocol
d. Basel Convention

52. Whether the Green Climate Fund is an independent entity?
a. Yes
b. No
c. It is an extended version of UNFCCC
d. None of the Above

53. Where is the secretariat of the Green Climate Fund located?
a. Seoul, South Korea
b. Songdo, Republic of Korea
c. New Delhi, India
d. Paris, France

54. Which conference has made progress towards the funding of the Green Climate Fund?
a. Doha Conference of UNFCCC, 2012
b. Bonn Conference of UNFCCC, 2001
c. Marrakesh Conference of UNFCCC, 2001
d. Copenhagen Conference of UNFCCC, 2009

55. The rule book for reducing emissions from deforestation and forest degradation was introduced in which conference?
a. Warsaw Conference in UNFCCC, 2013
b. Bonn Conference of UNFCCC, 2001
c. Marrakesh Conference of UNFCCC, 2001
d. Copenhagen Conference of UNFCCC, 2009

56. Which conference provides a framework for all countries to curb the menace of climate change?
a. Bonn Conference of UNFCCC, 2001
b. Warsaw Conference of UNFCCC, 2013
c. Copenhagen Conference of UNFCCC, 2009
d. Paris Conference, 2015

57. Which countries launched the International Solar Alliance in 2015?
a. India
b. France
c. All of the Above
d. None of the Above

58. Where was the Marrakesh Partnership for Global Climate Action adopted?
a. Climate Change Summit, 2017
b. Climate Change Summit, 2016
c. International Solar Alliance, 2015
d. Paris Conference, 2015

59. Which conference set the targets under the Paris Agreement, 2015?
a. Climate Change Summit, 2017
b. Climate Change Summit, 2016
c. International Solar Alliance, 2015
d. Paris Conference, 2015

60. Where was the Climate Change Summit, 2018 held?
a. Warsaw, Poland
b. Seoul, South Korea
c. Katowice, Poland
d. Paris, France

61. Where was the Kigali Agreement signed?
a. Rwanda
b. Nigeria
c. Poland
d. Africa

62. Which articles of the Constitution of India deal with the protection of the environment?
a. Article 21
b. Article 47
c. Article 48A
d. All of the Above

63. Which act deals with the concept of village forests in India?
a. Wildlife Protection Act, 1972
b. Forest Conservation Act, 1980
c. Indian Forest Act, 1927
d. Environment Protection Act, 1986

64. Which is the first comprehensive legislation related to protection and conservation of wildlife?
a. Wildlife Protection Act, 1972
b. Forest Conservation Act, 1980
c. Indian Forest Act, 1927
d. Environment Protection Act, 1986

65. The Central and State Pollution Control Board was constituted to enforce which act?
a. Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
b. Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981
c. Environment Protection Act, 1986
d. None of the Above

66. Under which section of the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 was the CPCB constituted?
a. Section 4
b. Section 3
c. Section 5
d. Section 6

67. Which act aims to prevent and control water pollution and restore the wholesomeness of water?
a. Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
b. Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1975
c. Environment Protection Act, 1986
d. None of the Above

68. When did the Forest Conservation Act, 1980 come into force?
a. 21st October, 1980
b. 25th October, 1980
c. 23rd October, 1981
d. 24th October, 1980

69. The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 comprises how many chapters and sections?
a. 8 chapters and 70 sections
b. 7 chapters and 66 sections
c. 7 chapters and 54 sections
d. 7 chapters and 55 sections

70. Which act came into force after the Bhopal Gas Tragedy?
a. Environment Protection Act, 1986
b. Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
c. Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1975
d. None of the Above

71. In which case it was decided by the Supreme Court that the problem of pollution should not be resolved at the cost of the livelihood of people?
a. AP Pollution Control Board v. M.V. Nayadu
b. State of Bihar v. Murad Ali Khan
c. Subhas Kumar v. State of Bihar
d. Enviro Legal Action v. Union of India

72. In which case it was decided by the Supreme Court that the right to access drinking water is a part of Article 21 of the Constitution of India?
a. AP Pollution Control Board v. M.V. Nayadu
b. State of Bihar v. Murad Ali Khan
c. Subhas Kumar v. State of Bihar
d. Enviro Legal Action v. Union of India

73. In which case the principle of liability came into existence?
a. AP Pollution Control Board v. M.V. Nayadu
b. State of Bihar v. Murad Ali Khan
c. MC Mehta v. Union of India
d. Enviro Legal Action v. Union of India

74. In which case the Supreme Court emphasised on the protection of wildlife?
a. AP Pollution Control Board v. M.V. Nayadu
b. State of Bihar v. Murad Ali Khan
c. Subhas Kumar v. State of Bihar
d. Enviro Legal Action v. Union of India

75. In which case it was decided by the Supreme Court that the right to live also includes the right to enjoy pollution free water and air?
a. AP Pollution Control Board v. M.V. Nayadu
b. State of Bihar v. Murad Ali Khan
c. Subhas Kumar v. State of Bihar
d. Enviro Legal Action v. Union of India

76. Which of the following was the principal aim of environmental stability and maintenance of ecological balance?
a. National Forest Policy, 1988
b. Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991
c. Environment Protection Act, 1986
d. None of the Above

77. The Coastal Regulation Zones, 1991 was amended by the Government of India in which year?
a. 2010
b. 2018
c. 2016
d. 2017

78. Which section of the NGT Act, 2010 deals with powers of tribunal?
a. Section 18
b. Section 19
c. Section 20
d. Section 21

79. The National Environment Policy, 2006 is based on judicial interpretation of which article of the Constitution of India?
a. Article 14
b. Article 21
c. Article 22
d. Article 48

80. Which of the following objectives are enumerated in the National Environment Policy, 2006?
a. Inter Generational Equity
b. Conservation of Environmental Resources
c. Environmental Governance
d. All of the Above

81. Which rules were implemented by the Ministry of Environment to manage hazardous waste in the country?
a. Hazardous and Other Waste (Management and Transboundary Movement) Rules, 2016
b. National Environment Policy, 2006
c. Plastic Waste Management Rules, 2016
d. Biomedical Waste Management Rules, 2016

82. Which of the following is a rule under Plastic Waste Management Rules, 2016?
a. Recycled plastics should not be used for packing edibles
b. Thickness of plastic should not be less than 50 microns
c. All of the Above
d. None of the Above

83. What kind of waste is biomedical waste?
a. Waste generated during diagnosis
b. Waste generated during treatment
c. Waste generated during immunisation
d. All of the Above

84. Under which category is chemical liquid waste mentioned?
a. Orange
b. Yellow
c. Red
d. Blue

85. Under which category is contaminated waste mentioned?
a. Orange
b. Yellow
c. Red
d. Blue

86. How can waste like sharp metals be treated and disposed of?
a. Autoclaving
b. Incineration
c. Auto or Dry sterilisation
d. Disinfection

87. How can waste like glassware be treated and disposed of?
a. Autoclaving
b. Incineration
c. Auto or Dry sterilisation
d. Disinfection

88. The E-waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011 were replaced by which rules?
a. E-waste Management Rules, 2016
b. Construction and Demolition Management Rules, 2016
c. Environment Protection Rules, 1986
d. None of the Above

89. Which of the following rules deals with recovering, recycling and reuse of waste generated by construction and demolition?
a. Construction and Demolition Management Rules, 2016
b. Waste Management Rules, 2016
c. All of the Above
d. None of the Above

90. Which instrument adopted the goals of Environmental Impact Assessment?
a. Basel Convention
b. Kyoto Protocol
c. Montevideo Convention
d. United Nations Environment Programme

91. Which of the following is an analysis method of Impact Assessment Methodologies?
a. Adhoc Methods
b. Overlay
c. Check Lists
d. All of the Above

92. Which of the following is not a category of Check Lists?
a. Simple Checklists
b. Descriptive Checklists
c. Networking Checklists
d. Scaling Weighting Checklists

93. Which of the following is the content of the EIA Report?
a. Description of Environment
b. Executive Summary
c. Monitoring Programme
d. All of the Above

94. Which of the following is not a stage in the Environment Clearance process?
a. Screening
b. Networking
c. Scoping
d. Appraisal

95. In which of the following ways can hazardous waste be managed?
a. Waste Minimisation
b. Waste Treatment
c. Waste Disposal
d. All of the Above

96. Which of the following is not a method for treating and managing hazardous waste?
a. Neutralisation
b. Oxidation and Reduction
c. Precipitation
d. None of the Above

97. Which of the following is not an option to dispose of hazardous waste?
a. Stabilisation
b. Underground Injection Wells
c. Landfills
d. Waste Piles

98. In which year did the National Green Tribunal Act come into force?
a. 18th October, 2010
b. 19th October, 2011
c. 20th October, 2011
d. 21st October, 2011

99. Whether NGT is bound by the Code of Civil Procedure Code, 1908?
a. No
b. Yes
c. No, rather it is guided by the principle of Natural Justice
d. Depends on the discretion of the tribunal

100. Where is the principal branch of NGT situated?
a. Pune
b. Kolkata
c. New Delhi
d. Bhopal