Q1. Which of the following doctrines ensures the basic structure of the Constitution cannot be altered even by a constitutional amendment?
A. Doctrine of Eclipse
B. Doctrine of Severability
C. Doctrine of Basic Structure
D. Doctrine of Pith and Substance
B. Doctrine of Severability
C. Doctrine of Basic Structure
D. Doctrine of Pith and Substance
Answer: C. Doctrine of Basic Structure
Explanation: The Basic Structure Doctrine was propounded in Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973). It limits the amending power of Parliament under Article 368 by holding that certain fundamental features of the Constitution, like secularism, democracy, rule of law, etc., cannot be altered.
Q2. Which Article of the Indian Constitution empowers the Supreme Court to issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights?
A. Article 32
B. Article 226
C. Article 131
D. Article 136
B. Article 226
C. Article 131
D. Article 136
Answer: A. Article 32
Explanation: Article 32 provides the right to constitutional remedies and empowers the Supreme Court to issue writs like habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto, and certiorari for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar described it as the heart and soul of the Constitution.
Q3. In which case did the Supreme Court hold that secularism is part of the basic structure of the Constitution?
A. S.R. Bommai v. Union of India
B. Minerva Mills v. Union of India
C. Golaknath v. State of Punjab
D. Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain
B. Minerva Mills v. Union of India
C. Golaknath v. State of Punjab
D. Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain
Answer: A. S.R. Bommai v. Union of India
Explanation: In S.R. Bommai v. Union of India (1994), the Supreme Court emphasized that secularism is part of the basic structure of the Constitution and cannot be compromised. The case dealt with the misuse of Article 356 and reaffirmed the role of secularism in maintaining India’s democratic fabric.
Q4. Which of the following is NOT a ground for restricting the freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(2)?
A. Sovereignty and integrity of India
B. Public order
C. Contempt of court
D. Economic development
B. Public order
C. Contempt of court
D. Economic development
Answer: D. Economic development
Explanation: Article 19(2) allows the State to impose reasonable restrictions on the freedom of speech and expression on specific grounds like security of the state, public order, decency or morality, etc. Economic development is not one of the grounds mentioned under Article 19(2).
Q5. Which of the following constitutional amendments inserted Article 21A in the Constitution?
A. 42nd Amendment
B. 44th Amendment
C. 86th Amendment
D. 93rd Amendment
B. 44th Amendment
C. 86th Amendment
D. 93rd Amendment
Answer: C. 86th Amendment
Explanation: The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002 inserted Article 21A, making free and compulsory education a Fundamental Right for children between the ages of 6 to 14 years. It operationalized the directive principle under Article 45.
Q6. The Doctrine of Severability is primarily associated with:
A. Judicial review of constitutional amendments
B. Interpretation of directive principles
C. Validating partially unconstitutional statutes
D. Granting presidential assent
B. Interpretation of directive principles
C. Validating partially unconstitutional statutes
D. Granting presidential assent
Answer: C. Validating partially unconstitutional statutes
Explanation: Under the Doctrine of Severability, if a part of a statute is unconstitutional, only that part is struck down, and the rest remains valid if it can stand independently. This principle was elaborated in R.M.D. Chamarbaugwala v. Union of India (1957).
Q7. Which schedule of the Indian Constitution is associated with the anti-defection law?
A. Tenth Schedule
B. Eighth Schedule
C. Ninth Schedule
D. Eleventh Schedule
B. Eighth Schedule
C. Ninth Schedule
D. Eleventh Schedule
Answer: A. Tenth Schedule
Explanation: The Tenth Schedule, inserted by the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985, contains the anti-defection law, which lays down the grounds for disqualification of members of Parliament and State Legislatures on the basis of defection.
Q8. Which of the following is NOT a feature of a federal Constitution?
A. Supremacy of the Constitution
B. Separation of powers
C. Single unified judiciary
D. Dual government system
B. Separation of powers
C. Single unified judiciary
D. Dual government system
Answer: C. Single unified judiciary
Explanation: A federal Constitution typically features a dual system of government, division of powers, supremacy of the Constitution, and independent judiciary. However, a single unified judiciary, as in India, is more a unitary feature than federal.
Q9. The power to promulgate ordinances under Article 123 is vested in:
A. Prime Minister
B. Chief Justice of India
C. President of India
D. Parliament
B. Chief Justice of India
C. President of India
D. Parliament
Answer: C. President of India
Explanation: Under Article 123, the President can promulgate ordinances when Parliament is not in session and immediate action is required. These ordinances have the same force and effect as laws passed by Parliament but must be approved within 6 weeks of reassembly.
Q10. Which case established that Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles should be harmoniously construed?
A. A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
B. Minerva Mills v. Union of India
C. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
D. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
B. Minerva Mills v. Union of India
C. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
D. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
Answer: B. Minerva Mills v. Union of India
Explanation: In Minerva Mills v. Union of India (1980), the Supreme Court ruled that Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles are complementary and must be balanced. The judgment struck down parts of the 42nd Amendment that sought to give primacy to Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights.
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Ruchika Mohapatra
Contributing author
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