Practice Questions on Constitutional Law for CLAT PG 2026- Part II
Practice Questions on Constitutional Law for CLAT PG 2026 and gauge your preparation now!
QUESTIONS
1. Which of the following best describes the ‘Basic Structure’ doctrine of the Indian Constitution?
a) The fundamental rights enshrined in Part III of the Constitution.
b) The essential features of the Constitution that cannot be altered by parliamentary amendments.
c) The directive principles of state policy as guidelines for governance.
d) The distribution of powers between the Union and the States.
Correct Answer: b) The essential features of the Constitution that cannot be altered by parliamentary amendments.
Explanation: The Basic Structure doctrine, established in Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala, holds that the Parliament’s amending power under Article 368 is limited; it cannot alter the basic or essential features of the Constitution.
2. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution does the President of India have the power to promulgate ordinances?
a) Article 74
b) Article 123
c) Article 352
d) Article 360
Correct Answer: b) Article 123
Explanation: Article 123 empowers the President to promulgate ordinances during the recess of Parliament, which have the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament. These ordinances are temporary and must be approved by Parliament within a specified period.
3. Which of the following writs can be issued by a High Court or the Supreme Court to direct a public official to perform a duty that they have failed or refused to perform?
a) Habeas Corpus
b) Certiorari
c) Mandamus
d) Quo Warranto
Correct Answer: c) Mandamus
Explanation: Mandamus is a writ issued by a court to compel a public official, government body, corporation, or inferior court to perform a public or statutory duty that they have neglected or refused to do.
4. What is the maximum permissible strength of the Council of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, in relation to the total strength of the Lok Sabha?
a) 10%
b) 15%
c) 20%
d) No limit is prescribed
Correct Answer: b) 15%
Explanation: Article 75(1A) of the Constitution specifies that the total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15% of the total number of members of the Lok Sabha, ensuring a check on the size of the government.
5. Which schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the allocation of seats in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) to the States and Union Territories?
a) Fourth Schedule
b) Fifth Schedule
c) Sixth Schedule
d) Seventh Schedule
Correct Answer: a) Fourth Schedule
Explanation: The Fourth Schedule of the Constitution outlines the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the states and union territories, based on population and other considerations.
6. Which of the following fundamental rights is NOT explicitly mentioned in Article 19 of the Indian Constitution?
a) Freedom of speech and expression
b) Freedom to assemble peaceably and without arms
c) Freedom to practice any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or business
d) Right to privacy
Correct Answer: d) Right to privacy
Explanation: While Article 19 guarantees several freedoms, the right to privacy is not explicitly mentioned. However, the Supreme Court has recognized it as an intrinsic part of Article 21 (Right to Life and Personal Liberty), as seen in K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India.
7. Which constitutional amendment introduced the Tenth Schedule to the Indian Constitution, related to anti-defection?
a) 42nd Amendment
b) 44th Amendment
c) 52nd Amendment
d) 61st Amendment
Correct Answer: c) 52nd Amendment
Explanation: The 52nd Amendment Act of 1985 introduced the Tenth Schedule, also known as the Anti-Defection Law, to prevent political defections by Members of Parliament and state legislatures.
8. The concept of ‘procedure established by law’ in Article 21 of the Indian Constitution is borrowed from which country’s constitution?
a) United States of America
b) United Kingdom
c) Japan
d) Canada
Correct Answer: c) Japan
Explanation: The phrase ‘procedure established by law’ in Article 21, which protects life and personal liberty, is borrowed from the Constitution of Japan, indicating that personal liberty can be restricted only according to legally prescribed procedures.
9. What is the term of office for the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India?
a) 4 years
b) 5 years
c) 6 years or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier
d) During the pleasure of the President
Correct Answer: c) 6 years or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier
Explanation: As per Article 148 of the Constitution, the CAG holds office for a term of six years or until they attain the age of 65, whichever comes first, ensuring their independence and accountability.
10. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with the Directive Principles of State Policy?
a) Part II
b) Part III
c) Part IV
d) Part IVA
Correct Answer: c) Part IV
Explanation: Part IV of the Indian Constitution (Articles 36-51) contains the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), which are guidelines or principles to be followed by the state when framing laws and policies, aiming to establish a welfare state.
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Ruchika Mohapatra
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