Practice Questions on Constitutional Law for CLAT PG 2026- Part II

a) The fundamental rights enshrined in Part III of the Constitution.

b) The essential features of the Constitution that cannot be altered by parliamentary amendments.

c) The directive principles of state policy as guidelines for governance.

d) The distribution of powers between the Union and the States.

Correct Answer: b) The essential features of the Constitution that cannot be altered by parliamentary amendments.

Explanation: The Basic Structure doctrine, established in Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala, holds that the Parliament’s amending power under Article 368 is limited; it cannot alter the basic or essential features of the Constitution.

a) Article 74

b) Article 123

c) Article 352

d) Article 360

Correct Answer: b) Article 123

Explanation: Article 123 empowers the President to promulgate ordinances during the recess of Parliament, which have the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament. These ordinances are temporary and must be approved by Parliament within a specified period.

a) Habeas Corpus

b) Certiorari

c) Mandamus

d) Quo Warranto

Correct Answer: c) Mandamus

Explanation: Mandamus is a writ issued by a court to compel a public official, government body, corporation, or inferior court to perform a public or statutory duty that they have neglected or refused to do.

a) 10%

b) 15%

c) 20%

d) No limit is prescribed

Correct Answer: b) 15%

Explanation: Article 75(1A) of the Constitution specifies that the total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15% of the total number of members of the Lok Sabha, ensuring a check on the size of the government.

a) Fourth Schedule

b) Fifth Schedule

c) Sixth Schedule

d) Seventh Schedule

Correct Answer: a) Fourth Schedule

Explanation: The Fourth Schedule of the Constitution outlines the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the states and union territories, based on population and other considerations.

a) Freedom of speech and expression

b) Freedom to assemble peaceably and without arms

c) Freedom to practice any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or business

d) Right to privacy

Correct Answer: d) Right to privacy

Explanation: While Article 19 guarantees several freedoms, the right to privacy is not explicitly mentioned. However, the Supreme Court has recognized it as an intrinsic part of Article 21 (Right to Life and Personal Liberty), as seen in K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India.

a) 42nd Amendment

b) 44th Amendment

c) 52nd Amendment

d) 61st Amendment

Correct Answer: c) 52nd Amendment

Explanation: The 52nd Amendment Act of 1985 introduced the Tenth Schedule, also known as the Anti-Defection Law, to prevent political defections by Members of Parliament and state legislatures.

a) United States of America

b) United Kingdom

c) Japan

d) Canada

Correct Answer: c) Japan

Explanation: The phrase ‘procedure established by law’ in Article 21, which protects life and personal liberty, is borrowed from the Constitution of Japan, indicating that personal liberty can be restricted only according to legally prescribed procedures.

a) 4 years

b) 5 years

c) 6 years or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier

d) During the pleasure of the President

Correct Answer: c) 6 years or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier

Explanation: As per Article 148 of the Constitution, the CAG holds office for a term of six years or until they attain the age of 65, whichever comes first, ensuring their independence and accountability.

a) Part II

b) Part III

c) Part IV

d) Part IVA

Correct Answer: c) Part IV

Explanation: Part IV of the Indian Constitution (Articles 36-51) contains the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), which are guidelines or principles to be followed by the state when framing laws and policies, aiming to establish a welfare state.